During the last forty years a theory has made its way into historical
literature, according to which private ownership in land was preceded
by a system of cultivation in common. The authors of this theory do not
confine themselves to saying that there was no such thing as private
property in land among mankind when in a primitive or savage state. It
is obvious that when men were still in the hunting or pastoral stage,
and had not yet arrived at the idea of agriculture, it did not occur to
them to take each for himself a share of the land. The theory of which
I speak applies to settled and agricultural societies. It asserts that
among peoples that had got so far as to till the soil in an orderly
fashion, common ownership of land was still maintained; that for a
long time it never occurred to these men who ploughed, sowed, reaped
and planted, to appropriate to themselves the ground upon which they
laboured. They only looked upon it as belonging to the community.
It was the people that at first was the sole owner of the entire
territory, either cultivating it in common, or making a fresh division
of it every year. It was only later that the right of property, which
was at first attached to the whole people, came to be associated with
the village, the family, the individual.
“All land in the beginning was common land,” says Maurer, “and belonged
to all; that is to say to the people.”[51] “Land was held in common,”
says M. Viollet, “before it became private property in the hands of
a family or an individual.”[52] “The arable land was cultivated in
common,” says M. de Laveleye; “private property grew up afterwards
out of this ancient common ownership.”[53] In a word, the system of
agriculture was, in the beginning, an agrarian communism.
This theory is not, strictly speaking, a new one. Long before the
present century, there were thinkers who loved to picture to themselves
mankind living together, when society was first formed, in a fraternal
communism. What is new in this, what is peculiar to our own times, is
the attempt to rest this theory on a foundation of historical fact, to
support it with quotations from historical documents, to deck it out,
so to speak, in a learned dress.
I do not wish to combat the theory. What I want to do is only to
examine the authorities on which it has been based. I intend simply to
take all these authorities, as they are presented to us by the
authors of the system, and to verify them. The object of this cold and
tedious procedure is not that of proving whether the theory is true or
false; it is only to discover whether the authorities that have been
quoted can be fairly regarded as appropriate. In short, I am going to
discuss not the theory itself, but the garb of learning in which it has
been presented.
The theory of Maurer as to community of land amongst the Germanic
nations.
G. L. von Maurer is, if not the earliest, at any rate the chief author
of the theory we are examining.
He presented it with great clearness in a book published in 1854.
In this he maintained that, amongst the Germans, private domains,
villages and towns, all spring alike from a primitive mark;
that this primitive mark consisted of an area of land held in common;
that the land was cultivated for a long period without there being any
private property; and that the cultivators formed amongst themselves
an “association of the mark,” a “markgenossenschaft.” “All
land,” he said, “was in the beginning common-land, gemeinland or
allmende” (page 93). “There was nothing which could be rightly
termed private property” (ibid). “The ground was divided into
equal lots, and this division was made afresh each year; every member
received a part and moved each year to a new lot.” “The whole mark,
cultivated land as well as forests, was held in common” (p. 97).
“The idea of property,” he says again, “only came as a result of Roman
law” (p. 103). “Property, as we find it in later times, was produced by
the decomposition of the ancient mark” (p. 10).
Our author re-stated his doctrine in another book published two years
later: “The associations of the mark are bound up with the primitive
cultivation of the soil; they can be traced back to the earliest
German settlements, and in all probability once occupied the whole of
Germany.”[54] We have to consider what are the facts, and what the
authorities on which Maurer builds up this doctrine.
As the question concerns very early times, he naturally begins with
early authorities. The first is Cæsar. Cæsar calls our attention, we
are told, to the fact that amongst the Germans “there are no separate
estates or private boundaries.”[55]
This is explicit; and, although one might say that Cæsar was
unacquainted with the Germans at home,[56] it has great weight as
coming from so clear-headed a writer. Let me, however, call attention
to the fact that the passage from Cæsar is by no means a description of
the mark as Maurer and his disciples conceive it. Cæsar does not show
us a markgenossenschaft, an association of peasants cultivating
in common land of which they were the common owners. He describes, and
this is a very different thing, the chiefs of the cantons arbitrarily
disposing of the soil of which they alone appear to be the owners, and
each year moving families and groups of men from one place to another.
These people apparently have no rights, no power of initiative; the
chiefs leave them only “as much land as they think fit,” “where they
think fit,” and they “force them” to move from place to place. All this
is far enough removed from the supposed association of the mark—an
association, that is, of free peasants cultivating land in common, in
virtue of their joint ownership; and it would be difficult to make
Cæsar’s observation fit into such a condition of things.[57]
Next comes Tacitus. Does he introduce the mark into the picture which
he draws of the institutions of the Germans? “Yes,” says Maurer; “for
in his 26th chapter, when he uses the word agri he means the
mark.” And again, “all land held in common and not divided, Tacitus
calls ager.” But by what authority does Maurer translate
agri in Tacitus, and further on ager, by “common lands,”
when the word common is not to be found there? “Because,” says
he, “the word ager, in the Roman sense, signified when used by
itself ager publicus.” Here we have an apparently unimportant
philological statement, but it is one which plays a considerable
part in Maurer’s book. He repeats it three times (pages 6, 84, and
93). Indeed, if we look more closely into it, we find that it is the
foundation of his system. It was necessary for his view that the mark
should be found in Tacitus; and therefore the word ager by
itself had to mean ager publicus, i.e., mark, common
land, Gemeinland. This is exactly what has to be proved. The
true sense of a word cannot be got at by an effort of imagination,
or by turning over the pages of a pocket-dictionary. It is only to
be found by bringing together a number of examples of its use and
comparing them; and the term ager occurs so often in Latin
literature that an attentive student can hardly make any mistake as to
its meaning. Nowhere do we find it in the sense of public land, unless
when accompanied by the adjective publicus or the genitive
populi, or some other term to show clearly the especial meaning
it is intended to have.[58] By itself it never meant public land. Read
Cato and Varro; they do not once mention public lands; and yet the
word ager occurs frequently in their works, each time in the
sense of a private estate. Some one buys an ager; the owner
makes the lustration of his ager (Cato, 141), that is to say, he
perambulates the boundaries of his property. Columella is continually
talking about the ager as the property of a man whom he calls
dominus. More than thirty passages in Cicero show that he drew a
distinction between an ager, which was the property of a private
citizen, and the ager publicus, which was the property of the
state. Even the agrarian laws, whose real object was to transform an
ager publicus into an ager privatus, mark clearly the
difference between them.[59]
It is, therefore, in no sense true that the word ager by itself
implied public or common land, or that it was in any way analogous to
the word mark. So far was this from being the case, that a Roman
jurisconsult expressly says that the dominant idea conveyed by the word
ager is that of complete ownership.[60]
In fact, what a Roman calls ager was very often what we call an
estate. In Cato, for instance, the ager is not simply a field;
it is a domain of some 60, 75, or 150 acres (c.c. 1, 10), which is
cultivated by ten, twelve or sixteen slaves. Columella mentions, as if
it were not unusual, that an ager might be so extensive that
the owner would have to divide it for purposes of agriculture between
several groups of slaves. Ager and fundus are synonymous
terms, and they both mean an area of land cultivated for an owner’s
benefit.[61] Pliny speaks in his letters of his agri; and each
of these is a great estate that he either lets out to farmers, or
cultivates by means of a body of slaves. Each ager included, to
judge from his description, arable land, meadows, vineyards and woods.
The jurisconsult Paulus makes use of the two words, ager and
fundus, in referring to one and the same domain.[62] Another
jurisconsult says in so many words that the word ager includes
all the land of an estate.[63] Finally, if there were still any doubt,
we need only look at the passage from Ulpian in the Digest,
which gives the formula under which estates were enrolled in the
census. We see that such properties are called agri, and that
each of them comprises land in tillage, vineyards, meadows, and
forests.[64]
All this has to be borne in mind, if we would know what was the idea
that Tacitus associated with the word agri; for no doubt Tacitus
used the language of the Romans of his own times. To suppose that
he attached to this word a meaning it had never had, viz.,
public land, and, going even further, the idea of common
land—an idea which never entered the Roman brain—is pure fancy.
And this is the error with which Maurer and his followers set out to
misinterpret the whole of chapter xxvi. of the Germania.[65]
After Tacitus, we have the early records of German law. Is this where
Maurer discovers the mark? If the system of the mark was in full vigour
in early times, and came down from them to more modern days, proof of
its existence would certainly be found in barbaric law. But the word
mark is not to be met with in these codes. You find it neither
in the laws of the Burgundians nor in those of the Visigoths, nor in
those of the Lombards; nor do you find any term that might be its
equivalent or translation. It is absent, in like manner, from the Salic
law.
In the Ripuarian law the word is to be found, but in a sense
quite the opposite of that which Maurer attributes to it. Far from
implying a district of land common to all, it denotes the boundary of
a private estate. This will be seen on reading section 60: “If any one
buys a villa or any small estate, he ought to procure witnesses to
the sale.... If a proprietor encroaches on a neighbouring proprietor
(this is the meaning of the word consors), he shall pay fifteen
solidi.... The boundary of the two estates, terminatio,
is formed by distinct landmarks, such as little mounds or stones....
If a man overstep this boundary, marca, and enters the property
of another,[66] he shall pay the fine mentioned above.” Thus, what the
law calls terminatio in one line and marca in the next is
clearly one and the same thing: it is the boundary which separates two
private properties. A fact like this upsets Maurer’s whole system.
Let us turn to the codes of the Germans who remained in Germany proper.
The word mark is not to be met with throughout the Thuringian,
Frisian and Saxon codes. It does occur in those of the Alamanni and
Bavarians; but, instead of signifying a common territory, as Maurer
would have it, it is used for the boundary of a territory. The laws of
the Alamanni lay down that anyone who seizes a free man and sells him
across the borders, extra terminos, shall restore him to
his country and pay a fine of forty solidi; immediately after, in the
following line, comes a similar direction in case of the sale of a free
woman beyond the borders, and the only difference is, that in place of
extra terminos we have the phrase extra marcam: the two
expressions are, we see, synonymous, and both denote a frontier.[67]
The Bavarian law indicates still more clearly the meaning of the word.
Speaking of a man who takes a slave over the borders, it expresses it
by extra terminos hoc est extra marcam.[68] It is impossible
more clearly to indicate that the German word mark is synonymous
with the Latin word terminus. Another passage from the Bavarian
laws proves that mark was also used for the boundary of a
private estate. Under the rubric, De terminis ruptis, it says
that if two neighbours are at variance about their boundary, the
judges ought first to examine whether the boundary is indicated by
visible landmarks, such as marks on trees, hillocks or rivers. Now
these two neighbours who have a common boundary are termed in the law
commarcani.[69] Maurer, it is true, supposes that by this word
is meant “men who dwelt in the same mark, the same common territory,”
but he would not have fallen into this error had he noticed that the
same clause in the very next line expressly tells us that we have
here to do with private property, with land that has been inherited;
for each of the disputants makes a declaration that he has inherited
his lands from his ancestors.[70] Here we have, then, precisely the
opposite of mark in the sense of land held in common. Two neighbouring
landowners are at law about their boundaries. Commarcani is
analogous to confines, which we find elsewhere; it is used of
two men who have the same marca, the same finis, that is,
a common boundary.
That the mark was a district possessed in common by a number of
persons there is not a trace in German law. But are there not, at any
rate, vestiges of some kind of common ownership? Maurer maintains that
there are; and as evidence brings forward three instances, all taken
from the Burgundian law: in section 13 he finds the words in silva
communi; in section 31, in communi campo; and in section 1
of the “additamentum,” silvarum et pascuorum communionem.[71]
This is quite sufficient to convince some readers. Is not the word
communis enough? And yet, let us make sure of our quotations,
and with each of them let us look at the context.
Article 13 does not in the least refer to a forest common to all,
but to one which happens to be held in common between a Roman and a
Burgundian, probably in consequence of the division of an estate which
had belonged to the former.[72] This is a very different thing from a
system of community. The passage shows, on the contrary, that in this
case the forest was the property of two men. The mention in section
31 of a campus communis has led Maurer to say “that there were
still in Gaul many fields which remained undivided.” This is a mistake;
for here again it is a field belonging to two proprietors that is
spoken of; one which is only undivided so far as these two men are
concerned. Anyone who has planted a vine in a common field shall make
up for it to the other owner by handing over to him an equal extent of
ground;[73] but if the co-proprietor from the first objected to his
doing it, and the other has planted his vine in spite of him, he shall
lose his pains and the vine shall belong to the owner of the field.[74]
It is plain that here we have to do with something very different
from a piece of ground common to an entire village. Maurer has, in
this instance, made the mistake of isolating two words instead of
reading the whole passage. As to his third quotation, section 1 of the
additamentum, we find that this does not belong to Burgundian
law. It belongs to the Roman law of the Burgundians; which is a
very different thing.[75] It is, in fact, connected with an arrangement
entirely Roman in its character, which is to be met with also in the
code of Theodosius, according to which forest and pasturage might be
held in common by a certain number of owners of land in tillage. The
Roman law enacts that in such a case each owner should have rights over
the forest and pasturage in proportion to the extent of his cultivated
land.[76]
Thus we find that the three passages from German law, which Maurer
believes he has discovered to prove the existence of a system of
common ownership, either belong to Roman law or have no connection
with this supposed common ownership of land, and even give positive
proof of private ownership. In the same way finding somewhere the
word consortes, he exclaims: “Here we have the associates of
the mark” (p. 145), and he again quotes a passage from the Burgundian
law; but, as in the instance given above, we find that the passage
belongs to Roman law, and, on looking at it, we see that the word
consortes is used in the Roman sense of co-heirs.[77] The
meaning of the clause is that if two or more co-heirs have not yet
divided the estate and apportioned their shares, and one of them
demands a division of the property, it is not to be refused him.[78] In
this case, again, we are far enough away from a system of community in
land.
Such are the four passages which Maurer finds, or thinks he finds,
in German law; and he can only use them in support of his theory by
misinterpreting them. The whole body of German law is, in fact, a law
in which private property reigns supreme. Look at the Burgundian law,
and you will find mention of corn fields which are enclosed, and even
of meadows; the forest itself is an object of private property. “If a
Burgundian or a Roman possess no forest, he may take dead wood from
the forest of another, and he to whom the forest belongs,
shall not hinder him; but if he takes a tree bearing fruit, he
shall pay a fine to the owner, domino silvæ.”[79] A right of
use, limited besides to dead wood, is not the same thing as common
ownership. It will be noticed also that the term used in the code for
a country domain is villa, with its boundaries, termini
villæ.[80] Even the lands given by the king to his servants are
marked off by definite boundaries.[81] These boundaries are sacred;
the Burgundian law-giver lays down that any one who removes a boundary
shall lose his hand. It never for a moment entered into the minds of
the Burgundians to establish agrarian communism.
In the law of the Visigoths, we find men who own vineyards, fields,
meadows, and even pasturage and forests.[82] Land is hereditary
property; and there is an entire section upon the division of landed
possessions amongst co-heirs, as well as one on the boundaries of
private estates. It is the same throughout the Lombard law; the right
of ownership applies to everything, even to forests.[83] The owner of
the land—dominus—has the right of selling it.[84] He can also
let it on lease, libellario nomine.
The Salic law is a much less complete code than those we have been
considering. It makes no mention of sale; but it contains the rule of
hereditary succession. Land passes from father to son.[85] We also
find enclosed corn fields and meadows,—a state of things hardly to be
reconciled with community of land;[86] there are even forests which are
one man’s property, and where no one has the right of getting wood.[87]
The Ripuarian law indicates the use of hedges and enclosures; it
recognises the right of hereditary succession to land, and also the
power of disposing of it by sale.[88] All these are unmistakable signs
of the prevalence of private ownership.
The hastiest glance at the law of the Alamanni, makes it absolutely
clear that the soil was an object of private property throughout the
district in which it was in force. We see from the first section that
an individual might be so completely owner of his land that he could,
by a mere act of will, give it away to a church; he had not to ask the
leave of any group of associates. Ownership of land is spoken of as
proprietas and it is “perpetual.”[89] It is also hereditary;
for the same law shows that if this man did not give his land to the
church, it would pass “to his heirs;”[90] and it provides for the case
of one of the heirs objecting to the gift, without mentioning the
possibility that an “association of the mark” might lay claim to the
land. The same code also mentions mills and water courses as objects
of private property.[91] The following clause enlightens us still
more as to the condition of the land: If a dispute arises between two
families concerning the boundary of their lands, the two families
fight in presence of the count; the one to whom God gives the victory
enters into possession of the disputed territory; the members of the
other family pay a fine of 12 solidi “because they have attacked the
property of another.”[92] Here we have a law which cannot apply
to lands common to all. It is clearly dealing with property which is
permanent, and sharply defined; though it is property which belongs not
so much to the individual as to the family. Among the Alamanni, as we
see, traces of family ownership still survived.
In Bavarian law property in land is hereditary. Each domain is
surrounded by a boundary made “either by a bank of earth, or by stones
stuck in the ground, or by trees marked with some particular sign.”[93]
And we must not suppose that these boundaries merely enclosed gardens;
they enclosed fields and vineyards. “He who, whilst tilling his field
or planting his vine, has unwittingly moved a land mark, shall restore
it in the presence of his neighbours.” “When two neighbours having a
common boundary have a dispute, if the land marks are not clear, the
one says, ‘My ancestors possessed the land as far as this line, and
left it me by inheritance:’ and the other protests and maintains that
the land belonged to his ancestors as far as some other line; then the
dispute is settled by judicial combat.”[94] This is a good instance of
individual ownership. Ownership has long been hereditary; since each of
the litigants says he has received his estate from his ancestors, and
the lands have been held by the same families for several generations.
Nor is it only to land under tillage that the right of ownership
applies; it applies equally to forests and pastures; to uncultivated
as well as to cultivated land: “If any one sells his property, whether
cultivated land, or uncultivated, meadows or forests, the sale ought to
be transacted in writing and before witnesses.”[95]
In Thuringian law, land passes from father to son. Saxon law also
recognises the right of private property; and authorises the sale and
gift of land.
The capitularies of the Merovingian kings, again, show that private
property was the normal and regular state of things. An edict of
Chilperic declares that land shall pass not only to the son according
to the ancient rule, but also to the daughter, brother, or sister. In
his treatment of this last point Maurer once more displays singular
inaccuracy. From this law which declares the rule of hereditary
succession, he draws the conclusion that before that time there had
been community of property. The edict of Chilperic says that in no
case shall the neighbours take possession of the land; this appears
to him to mean that, up to the day this law was made, the neighbours
were the real owners, and inherited before the son of the dead man. He
does not notice that it is precisely in the case where a son survives
that Chilperic contents himself with referring to the ancient rule
of hereditary succession. The words non vicini occur in the
paragraph which deals with the case of the death of the owner without
children. To say that if a man dies without children, the nearest heirs
must be sought for, and the neighbours are not to take possession of
the land, is not the same as saying that until that time the neighbours
had had rights over the land. To exaggerate the meaning of a quotation
to such a point as this is really to pervert it.[96] Not a single
Frankish capitulary, not a single law, charter, or formula, mentions
this imaginary “right of the neighbours” over the land. Not one of
these documents even alludes to a village holding its land in common.
The Carolinginian capitularies, which were drawn up for Germany as well
as for Gaul, recognise two methods only of land-holding, the allodial,
i.e., complete and heritable ownership; and beneficiary,
i.e., land granted by its owner for a time and under certain
conditions. They know nothing of community of ownership.
If one could point anywhere to an annual or periodical division of the
soil this would be a proof of agrarian communism. Maurer accordingly
maintains (page 8) that this annual division was, as a matter of fact,
for a long time practised. In support of so grave an assertion,
to prove an historical fact of such magnitude, we might hope that
he would furnish us with numerous and precise references. He gives
but one, a document of the year 815, printed in Neugart’s Codex
diplomaticus, No. 182.[97] Now look at this deed; it is a gift made
to a convent by a certain Wolfin. Read it through; you will not find
a single mention of community, a single mention of a yearly division.
Wolfin is a landowner; the lands he grants are his property; even more
than that, they are his by inheritance; they have descended to him
from his father. Here then we have a deed which from its first word to
the last proves the existence of private property, and shows the very
opposite of common ownership.
How has Maurer managed to find in this a confirmation of his theory?
We have here a striking example of the light-hearted way in which he
works. The donor, in making a list according to custom of the lands
he is giving, writes terræ anales, prata, vineæ,
pascua. Maurer lays hold of this word anales. Of
course, it is not Latin; so he begins by supposing that the copyist
made a mistake, and corrects it to annales. But even the word
annalis does not belong to the language of legal documents;
there is not a single other instance of its use. Maurer supposes
that it means “lands that are held for only one year.” But that is
impossible; since, according to this very deed, they are Wolfin’s
property by inheritance. The whole list, terræ anales,
prata, vineæ, pascua relates beyond doubt to
inherited property. The word anales is puzzling; but any one
who is familiar with charters of this kind must have often observed
in those of this period the expression terræ areales taking
the place of terræ arabiles,[98] but with the same meaning,
i.e., arable lands. It occurs frequently in deeds of gift. When
in a number of documents exactly alike in phraseology you find in
eighty terræ arabiles, prata, vineæ, silvæ,
pascua, and in twenty more terræ ariales, prata,
vineæ, silvæ, pascua; then, supposing in a single
example you meet with terræ anales, prata, vineæ,
silvæ, pascua, common sense tells you that this word
anales, which, however we take it, is incorrect, was written
for ariales, and that either the editor or the copyist made a
mistake. There is no doubt whatever that the donor makes a gift of
“lands he possesses by inheritance,” which include “arable lands,
meadows, vineyards and pasture.” Such is the deed of 815; and it is
an illustration of the method Maurer follows. He cites a deed, which,
taken as a whole, proves the existence of private and heritable
property; he does not tell the reader this, but picks out from its
context a single word; alters it and translates it in his own way;
and presenting the reader only with this one word, tries to make him
believe that the deed proves the annual division and common ownership
of land.
When Maurer comes to deal with the barbarian invasions, he takes great
pains to get together a number of quotations which will suggest the
idea of a partition of land (pages 72 seq.); but if we examine
them, we see that there is absolutely nothing about a yearly
or periodical division. He first quotes from Victor Vitensis,
who tells us that Genseric, directly he was master of the province
called Zeugitana, divided its soil amongst his soldiers “in hereditary
lots.”[99] This is exactly the opposite of a yearly division of land,
and, consequently, of common ownership. Next comes Procopius who writes
that “the Ostrogoths divided amongst themselves the lands which had
before been given to the Heruli.”[100] Here again we have to do with
a division of land among private owners. Then Maurer, with a great
profusion of quotations, points to the divisions of property that many
scholars believe were effected between the Roman proprietors on the
one hand and the Visigoths, Burgundians and Franks on the other. But
this division, in any case, was neither yearly nor periodical. Each
portion became, from the very first day, permanent and hereditary. It
would be childish to maintain that a division of this kind was the sign
of a system of common ownership. It shows on the contrary that the new
comers knew nothing about community in land, and never practised it.
And so we find that Maurer cannot, from all these nations, produce
a single instance of a village holding its land in common or of an
association of the mark. Not a single instance either from writers
of the time, or from codes of law, or from charters, or from legal
formulæ. And it is impossible to reply that this is simply a case of
omission; for in these laws, charters and formulæ, we not only do not
find common ownership, but we do find exactly the opposite; we find
signs everywhere of private property, and of the rights of inheritance,
donation and sale.
There is not even a trace to be found in these codes of law of an
earlier system of non-division. When they lay down that land is
hereditary, or that it can be sold, they do not say that this was a
novelty. It is easy for Maurer to declare that these practices were
borrowed from Roman law; this is a convenient hypothesis, but one for
which there is no proof. The fact is that the earlier condition of
things, of which we can see the traces in German legislation, was not
communism, but the common ownership of the family. We find
signs of this in the Salic and in the Ripuarian law, and in the codes
of the Burgundians and Thuringians. The revolution in the land system
which took place at this period was a change not from common ownership
to private ownership, but from the ownership of the family to that of
the individual. The practices of bequest and of sale are the chief
marks of this great change; and it is this alone that we can attribute
to the influence of Roman law: while even here it seems to me that it
would be safer to regard it rather as a natural process of evolution
which has taken place in every nation.
If in German law Maurer can discover no trace of the mark or of
community in land, what are the documents on which he rests his
proof of their existence? If we study his book with some attention,
we shall be surprised to find that he goes for his authorities to
the Traditiones, under which title are classed the various
collections of charters of the 8th to the 14th centuries.[101] But all
these, and they number almost ten thousand, are, without exception,
deeds of private property. In fact, they are always either deeds of
gift, or of sale, or of exchange, or of the grant of precaria.
It is impossible not to allow that the thousands of deeds of this kind
are so many proofs of private property, since you can neither sell nor
give away what is not already your own. Amongst these collections we
also find judicial decisions, and they all point in the same direction.
Observe, too, that there is absolutely no doubt as to the meaning of
the language employed. Could language be clearer than that of the
following passage taken from a deed of 770? “I, Wicbert, give to the
church of St. Nazarius the farms (mansi), lands, fields, meadows
and slaves that belong to me. All these I deliver to the church to be
held for ever, with the right and power of holding, giving, exchanging,
and doing with them as seems to it best.”[102] Or of a deed of 786:
“I, daughter of Theodon, give to St. Nazarius all that I hold by
inheritance in the places here mentioned; and everything that has been
in my possession and ownership, I hand over into the possession and
ownership of St. Nazarius.”[103] And again: “Whatever land belongs to
me I give to the abbot and his successors to hold and possess it for
ever;”[104] and yet again: “I, Wrachaire, give whatever land is mine
in my own right for the abbot henceforward to hold in his own right,
jure proprio.”[105] These expressions occur in thousands of
documents. Often the donor or seller adds that he holds the land by
inheritance, that he has received it from his father.[106] Another
thing we must not fail to notice is that ownership is not limited to
land under cultivation; it includes forest, pasture and streams,[107]
as we find over and over again. And it is never a village community or
mark which makes such a gift, but always a single individual.
Such is the character of the records Maurer sets about using in order
to prove the existence of community in land in the Middle Ages. It
is evident that, taken as a whole, they are in direct contradiction
to this theory; but what he does is to separate from the rest about
twenty deeds, take his evidence from them, and ignore the existence of
the rest. What can be said for a proceeding by which, merely for the
sake of propping up a theory, certain isolated cases are picked out,
and the great mass of evidence, which is in opposition to the theory,
is passed over? At the very least, it would have been only fair to
warn the reader that the deeds quoted belonged to an insignificant
minority—eighteen or twenty out of about ten thousand. Readers have
not always volumes of this kind at their elbow; and if they have, it
does not occur to them to verify the references. If you present them
with twenty quotations, they at once suppose that these are the only
ones in existence. They ought to be told that there are ten thousand
other deeds of the same character, written at the same time, drawn up
according to the same forms. You should confess that these ten thousand
deeds say exactly the opposite of the twenty you quote. You should not
leave them in ignorance of the fact that these thousands of gifts,
wills, sales or exchanges of land form an absolute proof of a system
of private property. Only after pointing all this out, would it be
right to tell them that there are perhaps eighteen or twenty deeds in
which some signs of community in land may possibly be seen. No avowal
of this kind was, however, made by Maurer; his followers in Germany
and France have been equally silent. All of them calmly appeal to the
Traditiones, as if these fifteen ponderous volumes were not in
themselves an overwhelming refutation of their theory.
We must go further. Are the eighteen or twenty deeds referred to
by Maurer given correctly? Do they really mean what our author
wishes them to mean? Observe that he never quotes more than a single
line, sometimes only one or two words. We must go to the documents
themselves and verify them.[108]
He first of all quotes, on page 47, a deed from the Lorsch collection.
It is a charter of 773, by which Charles the Great grants to that
monastery in perpetuity, the villa of Hephenheim, including lands,
houses, slaves, vineyards, forests, fields, meadows, pasture, water and
streams, with all its appurtenances and dependances, its boundaries
and its marks, cum terminis et marchis suis.[109] Here is the
mark, says Maurer. Yes, but not the mark of the village community. It
is precisely the opposite, the march or boundary of a private property.
We have here to do with a villa, a domain which has been the private
property of the king and is now becoming the property of a convent.
There is not a thought here of common ownership, or of a common mark,
or of a village association. There is not even a village. It is a
domain, cultivated, says the charter, by slaves. Cum terminis et
marchis suis are both words meaning the boundaries of the domain;
and in a repetition of this kind there is nothing surprising. The
marca is precisely the same as the terminus. We saw
above, in the Bavarian law, terminus id est marca. In the
same way a charter of Childeric II. describes the boundary-line of
a domain as fines et marchas.[110] We must not suppose that
these marchae were a stretch of land separate from the domain.
The expression dono villam ... cum marchis will astonish no
one who is familiar with documents of this class. Any one who has any
acquaintance with them knows that it was the custom in deeds of gift,
or sale of a domain, to add, “with its boundaries.” Charters written
in Gaul have the phrase, cum omni termino suo; in Germany,
cum omni marca sua or cum marcis suis.[111] In a large
number of our documents marca is used in this sense alone, as,
for instance, in the Codex Fuldensis, No. 21, a deed of 760,
in which a certain person makes a gift of a villa cum marcas et
fines.
Maurer refers to many other documents;[112] a charter of Louis the
Pious, a deed of 748 given by Grandidier, six deeds of 768, 778, 790,
794, 796 and 811 quoted by Schœpflin, and a diploma of 812 in the
collection of Neugart. But what do we gather from all this evidence?
Every one of these documents is a deed of donation in perpetuity;
in every case it is the donation of land situated in a locality
described indifferently as villa, finis or marca:
in fine vel in villa Berkheimmarca; in fine vel marca
Angehisesheim; in villa vel in fine Heidersheim marca;
in villa Gebunvillare seu in ipsa marca; dono portionem meam
quæ est in marca Odradesheim; in loco et in marca Hortheim;
in curte vel in marca Ongirheim; quidquid in ipso loco
et ipsa marca habeo. All these expressions are synonymous and
recur again and again. In 803 Ansfrid makes a gift of whatever he
owns in marca vel villa Sodoja and also in villa vel marca
Baldanis.[113] All these quotations prove no more than this, that
the word mark, after being originally used in the sense of a
boundary of a domain, afterwards came to mean the domain itself; a
change in the use of a word, which is familiar enough to students
of philology. The same thing has happened with the synonymous terms
finis and terminus. In Gaul, villa Elariacus and
terminus Elariacus are used indifferently; as are Longoviana
villa and Longoviana finis. In Germany villa or
marca are used in the same way. In the examples given by Maurer,
I recognise the existence of the mark, but of a mark which was the same
thing as a villa, that is a private estate.[114] Maurer has mistaken
private domains for common lands.
In the thousands of documents in the collections of the
Traditiones the name of the domain, which the donor owns either
in whole or part, is always given. And we may say that, roughly
speaking, out of eight instances we shall find it called villa
seven times and marca once, and that there is no other
difference between the two sets of documents.
Another fact has escaped Maurer’s notice, and that is that these
marks frequently bear the name of their owner. It is well known that
this was the usual custom with the villæ of Gaul,—villa
Floriacus, villa Latiniacus, Maurovilla,
Maurovillare; and in the same way we have many instances of
names like marca Angehises, marca Baldanis, marca
Munefridi, marca Warcharenheim, Droctegisomarca. The
resemblance is noteworthy. In the study of history observation is worth
more than all the theories in the world.
Occasionally the word mark denotes something larger than an
estate, and is applied to an entire province. What is the origin of
this? In the documents of the sixth and seventh centuries, in the
writings of Marius of Avenches, in the laws of the Alamanni and in
those of the Bavarians, and later on in the capitularies of Charles the
Great, marca signified the frontier of a country.[115] Little
by little this word began to mean border-country, and so arose the
expression “the marches” of Spain, of Brittany, Carinthia, Austria,
Brandenburg; until almost every country had insensibly grown into a
“march.” Must we suppose from this, as Maurer would maintain, that the
whole German territory was mark-land from the very first? Not at all.
We know the origin of each of these marches, and almost the exact date
at which they came into existence. One belongs to the ninth century,
another to the tenth, and another was not created until the eleventh.
To refer them to a remote period of antiquity is an error which might
easily have been avoided.[116]
We may allow that Maurer proves easily and with abundant evidence that
the word marca was often used; but what he had to prove was that
this marca meant land held in common, and for this he has not,
up to this point, given the slightest evidence.
There are, on the contrary, thousands of documents showing that lands
within the mark were held as private property, and not in common.
In a deed of 711, Ermanrad gives away in perpetuity “thirty acres
which he owns in the marca Munefred,” and he adds that this
land is his “by inheritance from his grandmother.”[117] Another
makes a gift “of all he owns in the marca Bettunis, whether
inherited from his father or his mother.”[118] Maurer is ready to
admit that arable land was held as private property, but he will not
allow that meadows and forests could be held in the same way. We
have seen, however, in documents of the eighth or ninth centuries,
that forests and pastures were given away or sold in perpetuity, as
well as arable land.[119] In 793 Rachilde makes a gift “of all that
is his property in the marca Dinenheimer; and this includes
mansi, fields, meadows, pastures, waters, and streams.”[120]
Meginhaire, to take another case, gives what he possesses in the villa
Frankenheim and mentions “fields, mansi, meadows, pastures,
forests and streams.”[121] The same thing is repeated in thousands of
documents;[122] showing that a system of private ownership was in
force in the mark, as well as in the villa, and that it extended to
lands of every description.
This is the conclusion to which we are brought by the twenty documents
from the collections of Traditiones referred to by Maurer. Not
one of them shows a trace of a community of the mark or of any other
community. All the twenty, like the thousands of documents Maurer
passes over, are simply deeds relating to private property.
It is, then, indisputable that all existing documents show us a
system of private property; but Maurer supposes, 1st, that there
must once have been a period of undivided common property; 2nd, that
the “associates of the mark” passed from this to the later system of
private ownership, by dividing the land amongst them. That property
had ever been undivided he has no kind of proof to bring forward. It
is a statement he frequently repeats as if he had already proved it,
but we shall search his book in vain for any such demonstration. It is
certainly very strange for a scholar to heap together evidence for a
host of matters of secondary importance, and neglect to bring forward a
single authority for that on which everything turns, i.e., the
existence of the primitive community. His book is rich in references,
but not one bears upon this; so that we might say that everything here
is proved except the very point that was in need of proof.
As evidence of the supposed partition by means of which the “associates
of the mark” passed to a system of private ownership, Maurer refers
to three authorities.[123] The first is the hagiographer Meginarius,
who, in his Translatio Alexandri, relates a tradition according
to which the Saxons, on getting possession of Thuringia, at once
divided the country amongst themselves into separate portions to be
held in perpetuity, and handed over parts of them to be cultivated
by coloni.[124] Here we certainly have an instance of a
division of land; but this division does not follow upon a condition
of undivided ownership; so far from implying the existence of such a
state of things, it shows rather that to these Saxons the very idea
is unknown. As soon as they are masters of the soil they establish a
system of private property. The same fact is illustrated by the passage
from Helmold, which Maurer quotes, where we are told that certain
Westphalians, on being settled in a conquered country, at once divided
it between them.[125] His third reference is to a Bavarian document
of the year 1247, where we are told that “the fields were divided by
a line, and twelve acres allotted to each house.” Maurer imagines
this refers to an association of free peasants who have for centuries
cultivated the soil in common, and at last divide it amongst themselves
in equal shares. Not at all. If we read the whole document we see that
it refers to a villa, that is to say, a large estate belonging to a
single proprietor, who distributes the soil in holdings amongst his
rustici.[126] The document is interesting as illustrating a very
common usage, according to which every peasant received three lots of
land, one in each of the three different kinds.[127] This is, however,
a very different thing from the division among common owners of land
hitherto undivided; it is a division amongst tenants, carried out by
the proprietor. Thus we see that not one of the documents referred to
by Maurer points to a partition amongst “associates of the mark,” or to
a partition which replaced an earlier system of undivided property by
one of private ownership. We must, accordingly, recognise that it is a
mere hypothesis to suppose that land was ever held in common by a group
of associates; that the only established certain fact is the existence
of private property, which rests on the evidence of all the laws and
all the charters; and that there is nothing to suggest that this state
of things was the outcome of a primitive system of community. As far
back as the day when the word mark first appears in documentary
evidence, and throughout that evidence, the system of private property
is everywhere in possession of the field.
We would not say, however, that there are no examples of land held
in common; and we must now see what was the character of this common
ownership. It was of two sorts. Of the first kind an example is
afforded by a document of 815 cited by Maurer, in which occur the
words silvæ communionem; a certain Wigbald makes a gift of
a mansus, and of his share of a forest.[128] Another example
which he refers to is a forest belonging to three villæ in
common.[129] We are told also of a Count Hugo who bestows all his
possessions in the villa of Brunno as well as “the three quarters of
the marca silvatica which make up his share.”[130] Another less
rich can only give a huba, but he gives at the same time the
portion of the forest to which his huba has a right.[131] We might also
refer to a case in which a forest was held in common by two proprietors
of two domains down to the year 1184, when a division was effected by
a judicial decision.[132] There were, then, forests common to several
persons; but that does not justify us in saying that all forests were
common to every one; for we have documents without number in which a
man gives away or sells a forest that clearly belongs to himself alone.
We must also remember that when we read that a forest was common, it
does not mean common to everyone, but only common to a villa,
or perhaps to two or three villae,[133] so that the owners of
these villae alone have any rights over it.[134] Now, supposing
several persons are joint-owners of a forest, this is a very different
thing from a system of community in land. Each of them has rights over
the forest exactly in proportion to the amount of his property.[135]
“So much for every huba,” says one document. In another a man
makes a gift of all he has inherited in a villa, together with his
share, a twelfth, of a forest.[136] All the forests here spoken of are
nothing more than appendages to property. We must not be misled by the
expression “common forest;” which means no more than that the forest
was the property of several persons exercising over it all the rights
of ownership, even the right of selling their shares (as we see in
hundreds of documents) without having to ask the leave of anyone, and
without even consulting their fellow proprietors.
To the other class of instances belongs that referred to by Maurer
(p. 93) from a document of the end of the eighth century, where again
the words silva communis are to be found. The document relates
to a large estate; and it shows that the estate included a forest,
part of which was reserved for the lord, and the rest was common to
the tenants.[137] We are here far removed from the community “of the
associates of the mark,” for in this instance the cultivators of the
soil are merely tenants under a proprietor. Maurer quotes another deed
of 1173, where we read: “In this forest none of us had anything of his
own, but it was common to all the inhabitants of our villa.”[138] This
is another example, not of community of property, for it is tenants
who are speaking, but of community in tenure. Following upon this are
a series of quotations proving common use. “I give a curtile
with rights of use in the forest, cum usu silvatico, that is
with the privilege of gathering dead and broken wood.”[139] “We give
such and such curtilia with all the rights of use belonging to
these curtilia.”[140] Rights of use, in this instance, included
the power of cutting wood for fire or for the purpose of building, and
also of sending in pigs to feed on the acorns; but a right of use does
not imply common ownership.[141] Maurer’s supposition that the rights
of use in certain forests are survivals from a time when the forest
belonged to all, is a mere theory. Reasoning a priori he does
not think it possible that such rights could have arisen in any other
way. It is, however, possible that they spring from a very different
source, and that a careful examination of a number of documents will
show us what that was.
Let us take, for instance, a deed of 863, wherein Count Ansfrid gives
his villa of Geizefurt to the monastery of Lorsch. He gives a detailed
account of this property; which includes a lord’s mansus,
nineteen servile tenements and a forest, whose size is measured by the
fact that it can feed a thousand pigs. The donor thinks he ought to put
a clause in the deed to the effect that his peasants have the use of
the forest; a use definitely regulated,—giving, for instance, to some
the right to send ten pigs, to others five, and not including for any
of them the right of cutting wood.[142] It is clear that the forest,
as well as the rest of the domain, belongs to a proprietor; the domain
is cultivated by serfs, and the serfs have a certain limited use of
the forest; but this right of use is only granted them by the favour
of the proprietor, and it is a sort of accessory to the holding which
they have received from him. He gives away the whole domain, including
the forest and including the serfs; but it is understood that the serfs
under the new proprietor shall continue in their holdings and in the
enjoyment of their very limited rights to the use of the forest.
Sometimes the owner of the estate divides the forest into two,
keeps one part for himself and leaves the other for the use of his
tenants.[143] Sometimes, again, he exacts payment in return for these
advantages, and this forms part of the yearly rent.[144] Instances
of this kind make it clear that the common occupation of a part of a
forest does not come down from an earlier custom of joint-ownership,
but is connected with the old system of the private estate and its
servile holdings.
This brings us to the allmend. According to Maurer and his
followers, allmend is the land common to all; and they say
that at first all land was allmend. But, in the first place,
allmend is not to be found in documents earlier than the
beginning of the thirteenth century; and secondly, the word means no
more than the woodland and pasture over which the peasants had common
rights.
The “commons,” which are frequently to be met with in early documents,
are the same thing. Mention is made of them in a Merovingian diploma
of 687 (Pardessus, No. 408, Pertz, No. 56); in three charters in the
chartulary of St. Bertin in the eighth century; in seven formulas
and in miscellaneous documents to be found in various collections of
Traditiones.[145] Now, it is easy to see that in all these
instances, without a single exception so far as has yet been found,
the “commons” are spoken of as given, sold, or exchanged by some one
to whom they belong. The commons, therefore, are by no means the
collective property of a group of cultivators of the soil. They form
part of a villa, that is of a large estate; and when this is sold,
given away or bequeathed by the owner, he mentions, in accordance with
the usual practice, the different sorts of land which go to make up the
whole estate; as, for instance, “I, so and so, give to my nephews the
property I possess in such and such a district, which comprises so many
mansi with buildings, lands, forests, fields, meadows, pastures
communia, all the serfs dwelling there, and all that I possess
and hold.”[146] These commons, which are the property of a single
owner, cannot be common to others except so far as the enjoyment of
them is concerned, and that only with the goodwill of the owner. As far
as we can see, they were that part of the domain which, not being fit
for cultivation, was not let out to individual tenants, but left to the
tenants to use in common to pasture their animals upon, or for getting
wood. But they did not for that reason cease to be the private property
of the owner of the estate, who sells them or gives them away precisely
like any other part.
These documents of the eighth and ninth centuries, which speak of
communia, are followed by documents in succeeding centuries
which speak of the allmende. The two words are the equivalents
one for the other, and mean the same thing. The following is an example.
One of the most important documents instanced by Maurer is a deed
of the year 1150, in which mention is made of a forest called
allmend, “where the peasants often go and which is common to
them.” To judge from this phrase, apart from its context, we might
suppose that we have here to do with a mark, that is to say, with
land owned in common by a group of cultivators. But if we read the
whole document we find that it is a case where an entire villa belongs
to three brothers “by inheritance from their ancestors;” that they
are making a gift of it to a monastery,[147] and at the same time
transferring their rights over a forest adjoining the domain. “This
forest,” they say, “called in the vulgar tongue allmend, is
frequented by the peasants, and is used in common by them and us.”[148]
But these peasants are their tenants; though free in 1150, they had
once been the coloni, serfs or villani of the proprietor;
and what proves this is that the authors of the deed from which we
are quoting, add that one of their ancestors granted these men “civil
rights” and a charter; and they take care to insert this charter in the
deed so that it may be respected by the new owner.[149] Here, then,
is an instance in which peasants have certain rights of use over a
forest, but rights which are assuredly not derived from a time when
these men were owners of the forest. Some generations before, the whole
domain had belonged to a single owner and these people had been his
servants; they enjoyed certain rights in the forest as tenants, and
these were left to them when they became free men.[150]
What strikes one with astonishment in the writings of Maurer and his
disciples is that they omit and leave altogether out of sight a fact
which is of vital importance and rests on abundant evidence: the
existence of great estates in the early centuries of the Middle Ages.
They disregard also the existence of coloni and of slaves. But
these were to be found not only in Gaul, but even in Germany. Tacitus
himself describes the cultivation of the soil in Germany by serfs.[151]
He gives a picture of a society full of inequalities, including
rich and poor, nobles and simple freemen, freedmen and slaves; and
he remarks this peculiar characteristic, that the Germans—those of
them who were free, that is—did not themselves cultivate their land,
but left the work “to the weakest of their slaves.”[152] Later on
we see in the laws of the Burgundians that proprietors of land have
coloni to cultivate their estates;[153] they have slaves;[154]
they have on each estate a manager, actor, or a farmer,
conductor.[155] When the Burgundian king makes a present to one
of his warriors, it is not a small field that he gives him, but “an
estate with its slaves.”[156] The laws of the Alamanni also indicate
the existence of large estates. As to those belonging to the king and
the church the laws give particularly clear information, and show
that they were cultivated by slaves, or by coloni who paid a
yearly rent in produce or labour.[157] We may suppose that lands of
the same character were also in the hands of private persons; for
reference is made to their slaves, and in such a way as to show that
they were numerous.[158] Moreover, the laws speak of slaves holding
portions of land, with house, stable and barn,[159] by the side of
the house and barn of the owner.[160] In the laws of the Bavarians,
the same classes of coloni and slaves make their appearance.
Amongst the Thuringians, Frisians and Saxons, there are slaves and
liti; and neither of these classes is quick to disappear, for
they are still to be found in the documents of the Middle Ages, and to
be found cultivating holdings which belong to an owner and for which
they pay dues.[161] It is also noticeable in the greater part of these
documents, that the owner declares that, in giving or selling his land,
he gives or sells at the same time the slaves, freedmen, coloni,
liti; in a word, all who actually worked on the land.[162] The
number of slaves is considerable. Thus in a deed of 863, Ansfrid
makes a grant of an estate and sixty-four slaves.[163] In 786, Warinus
presents the Abbey of Fulde with a marca, which contains thirty
hubæ and three hundred and thirty slaves.[164] Some one else,
in 787, gives the lands that he owns in the marca of Wangheim,
and, at the same time, the sixty-two slaves who cultivate them.[165]
Walafrid, in another marca, gives twenty-eight slaves.[166] In
815, we find a man of middle rank possessing seven mansi and
five-and-twenty slaves.[167] From all this the conclusion is inevitable
that the marca or villa is an area belonging to one or
more proprietors and cultivated by a much larger number of slaves or
serfs—mancipia, liti, coloni.
Maurer would have done better if, instead of devoting so much ingenuity
to discovering in the collections of Traditiones a few passages
in support of his theory, he had noticed the evidence which is
presented, not in a few scattered lines, but in every page and in every
document, as to the way in which the land was actually distributed.
As each document mentions where the landed property given or sold is
situated, we are able to gather that the geographical unit is the
pagus, and the rural unit the villa, sometimes called
the marca. The customary form is: res sitas in pago N, in
villa quæ dicitur N. The word villa is the same word as we
find used in Gaul to designate an estate; the word marca which
takes its place in about one out of every eight instances, is but its
synonym. Sometimes the villa belongs to a single owner, sometimes it
is divided amongst several. But, in the one case as in the other, it
preserves its earlier unity. The land within it falls into two classes,
a dominicum and several mansi. The dominicum or
curtis dominicata or mansus dominicatus is the portion
that the owner has reserved for his own use; the other mansi or
hubæ, are the tenant-holdings which he has put into the hands
of his coloni or his serfs. To take an example. Ansfrid in 863
was owner of the villa of Geizefurt, which comprised a dominicum
of three mansi together with nineteen servile mansi.[168] In
868 the marca of Gozbotsheim had a dominicum of three
mansi, seventeen servile mansi, and serfs to the number
of a hundred and forty-six.[169] In 989 a woman represents herself
as owning in the marca of Schaffenheim 4 hubæ dominicales,
8 hubæ serviles, 5 mansi, vineyards, meadowland,
woodland and a mill, to all which are attached thirty slaves.[170]
The dominicum is described in the same way in many other
documents.[171] Maurer supposes (p. 137) that this expression refers
to all that part of the ancient common mark which has become private
property. This is a mistake. The dominicum is the land that
the proprietor has not entrusted to tenants.[172] Wherever we find
the dominicum, it is an unmistakable sign of a large private
estate. A dominicum necessarily implies a lord and his serfs
or coloni. With time the interior organisation of the villa is
modified; it is split up as a consequence of inheritance and sale, and
so we see proprietors owning not more than four or two mansi,
or perhaps only one. Many of the peasants may also have become free
men. But the dominicum is still there and bears witness that in
an earlier age the villa or marca had a single owner who
stood out above a numerous body of serfs. Maurer pays no attention to
all these facts; he suppresses them, and in their stead conjures up a
picture of mark associates.
His theory once set up, he wrests the meaning of documents so that
they shall agree with it. Seeing, for instance, in the laws of the
Burgundians that the King Gondebaut commands “all his subjects”
to observe a law, universitatem convenit observare, he
believes that the word universitas here relates to a village
community;[173] and it does not occur to him that this is the usual
formula by which the king addresses the whole body of his people. If he
sees in the laws of the Visigoths that when any one wishes to change
or restore the boundaries of a property, he must do it publicly, in
the presence of neighbours, this natural custom becomes in his eyes a
right of joint ownership possessed by the neighbours over the land in
question.[174] Because some forests are common to several owners, he
concludes that all forests are common to all. He maintains that the
right of chase belonged to all; and when you examine the authorities
from which he draws this conclusion, you discover that he quotes only
two, and that these, on the contrary, severely punish the man who has
stolen game.[175] Wherever he turns, he sees the mark. If the King
Childebert speaks of the centena, the centena must be
the mark.[176] The duty of furnishing the king’s agents with
a lodging when they are travelling falls on the mark.[177] If
later on you see a church in every village, it is because, in times
even earlier than Christianity, “the association of the mark was
united by religious bonds;” and in proof of this he quotes a document
of the year 1270 after Christ![178] The “associates of the mark,” he
says again, “are bound to support one another” (page 161), and the
only reference he gives is to the laws of the Alamanni; you turn to
the place indicated, and all you see there is that two men have a
quarrel, that one of them kills the other, and that the friends of
the victim pursue the murderer.[179] What connection has this with
an association of the mark? The village, according to him, formed a
free self-governing body, under its own head; and he then instances
the comes loci of the laws of the Burgundians,[180] though it
is certain that the comes, far from being a village chief, was
the royal agent who administered a civitas. He does not fail to
seize upon the tunginus as a chief elected by the villagers;
which, again, is pure imagination. He even discovers in a formula of
Marculf a senior communiæ, “a head of the rural community;” but
the passage in Marculf has a totally different meaning. The document
in question is a letter written in the name of a certain city begging
the king to appoint a bishop, and the expression seniori communi
is in the heading, amongst the titles given to the king himself. It
is a strange mistake to suppose it referred to the principal man of
a village community.[181] These members of the village, he goes on
to say, had their assemblies (page 141); but for this he produces no
authority. “They administered justice amongst themselves;” but how does
he explain the fact that there is not a single document to be found
referring to such an administration of justice? What we do, on the
contrary, frequently find is, that men belonging to a villa or mark are
under the jurisdiction of the proprietor or his representative, his
judex. To tell the truth, the communitas in the sense of
a group of peasants, does not make its appearance until the thirteenth
century.[182] Then only, or a little earlier, do the inhabitants of
the villa or mark act together as a sort of association for the common
enjoyment of certain privileges. Nothing of the kind appears in the
early part of the Middle Ages.
The success, therefore, of Maurer’s theory is not to be attributed to
the strength of his evidence. He has not furnished us with a single
proof, a single quotation, in support of the community or association
of the mark that he pictures to himself as existing when history first
begins. Go over the innumerable quotations at the bottom of the pages
of his book: more than two-thirds relate to private property; of the
rest some hundreds are concerned with minor points unconnected with the
subject; not a single one touches the main question; or if there are
any which at first sight appear to do so, the slightest examination
shows that they have been misunderstood and misinterpreted. The book,
nevertheless, has had an enormous influence. It has won many by its
neat consistency, others by its apparent learning. Anything like
verification of its arguments was gladly dispensed with; especially
as this is not an easy thing to do unless you happen to possess the
originals. And so, year after year, for forty years, the same story has
been repeated, the same arguments brought forward, the same authorities
quoted.
I shall not pursue this theory of Maurer’s through the works of
all his disciples; but I ought at least to notice in passing the
latest of them. Dr. K. Lamprecht has published recently a ponderous
and learned work upon the economic life of Germany in the Middle
Ages.[183] His first volume is a description of the rural economy of
the basin of the Moselle, and his principal object of study is Frank
life in this district. Unfortunately, under the influence of the
ideas which have been dominant in history since the time of Maurer,
he takes as his starting point “the association of the mark,” the
Markgenossenschaft. “The Frank people,” he says, “grew out of
the mark-association; and that institution has had an influence on the
Frank constitution that cannot be overlooked” (p. 51, cf. p. 42). Yet
he brings forward absolutely no proof, no indication of this primitive
community of the mark, and gives us nothing but the bare assertion.
He says (p. 46) that the mark appears in Frank law as an area of land
held in common; but he does not give a single quotation in which the
mark means an area of common land, and it is certain he could not
produce one. He tells us that he has seen the marca in Ripuarian
law, but he neglects to say that this marca is the boundary of a
private estate, and therefore exactly the opposite of common land.[184]
He also mentions that the word occurs again in an edict of Chilperic,
and he omits to add that the word marca was only introduced into
this edict by a conjecture of Professor Sohm’s, and that in any case it
is impossible to give it in this place the meaning of common land.[185]
“The Frank village,” he says, “was a portion of the mark, and the
mark was the common property of all its inhabitants; everything was
in common—arable land, meadows, forests.”[186] You look at the foot
of the page for the authorities on which this statement is based, and
you find a reference to a document of 786; you turn to this; it is in
Beyer, (Urkundenbuch zur Geschichte des Mittelrheins, vol. i. p.
19), and you see that it has nothing whatever to do with the mark, that
not even the word is to be found in it, and that the document merely
relates to a “villa Sentiacus.”
The absence of the term mark, and of all other like terms,
from the Franconian laws, does not trouble our author. He discovers
there the word vicini. To every one else this word signifies
neighbours; and it is easy to see that every system of law must
pay some slight attention to the mutual relations of persons who live
near together. In the eyes of Dr. Lamprecht, however, vicini
stands for associates; neighbourhood and common mark are with
him one and the same thing. You have neighbours; therefore you form
with them part of an association; therefore the land is common to
you and to them: such is his process of reasoning. It would greatly
surprise one of our peasants of to-day; they are by no means accustomed
to identify neighbourhood and corporate union. But a scholar with a
theory does not stoop to such small considerations as this. Perhaps,
however, some document has come down to us from the Frank period, which
would suggest that the men of that time saw a connection between the
two things? Not at all; not a single clause in a law, not a charter,
not a document of any kind suggests that the idea of association was
connected with that of neighbourhood. The vicini of the Salic
law are neighbours in the ordinary sense of the word. But Dr. Lamprecht
has a peculiar method of interpreting authorities. There is a certain
Merovingian capitulary which runs as follows: “If a man has been killed
between two neighbouring villae, without its being known who is
the murderer, the count must proceed to the place, call together the
neighbours (that is to say, the inhabitants of the two neighbouring
villae) to the sound of the trumpet, and summon them to appear
before his tribunal on an appointed day, for the purpose of declaring
on oath that they are innocent of the murder.” The passage is quite
clear, and the method of procedure very natural. But to Dr. Lamprecht
it means that the men were “associates of the mark” (p. 13, n. 3),
and that they lived in a condition of community. On this he builds up
a complete theory of “neighbourhood,” Nachbarschaft, and he
maintains “that this ‘neighbourhood’ is one of the principal factors of
the Frank organisation” (p. 19).
He comes upon this word vicini, again, in an edict of Chilperic.
The fact is that this edict declares, 1st, that land shall continue to
pass from father to son in accordance with the old rule; 2nd, that in
default of a son the daughter shall inherit; 3rd, that in default of
son and daughter, the collateral relations shall take the land and the
neighbours shall not take it.[187] This Dr. Lamprecht interprets as if
it said that in case of the failure of the direct line the neighbours
formerly had the right of taking the land; but the edict of Chilperic
does not say this, and the opposite is positively proved by the section
on succession (tit. xli.) in the Salic law. Then, starting with this
misinterpretation, he goes on to maintain that the vicini had a
common right to the land, and were, so to speak, the joint-owners of
it; a state of things of which there is not the slightest trace in the
documents.
He finds the word vicini again in section xlv. of the Salic
law, and at once believes that he has discovered a community, and a
community of such a kind that it has the right of excluding every
new-comer; so that a man who has obtained a field by purchase or
bequest has not the right to occupy it without the leave of all the
inhabitants. But read this section xlv. and you will see at once that
it does not apply to a man who has got a field by lawful means.[188]
You will notice, moreover, if you read the entire section—people are
always careful not to quote more than a fragment—that there is no
mention of any community. Not a single word throughout these twenty-two
lines means or suggests the idea of a community or an association.[189]
You do not see a body of inhabitants meeting, deliberating, deciding.
What you do see is a man, who, in his own name, enters a complaint
before the royal functionary, the count, against a certain person who
has taken possession of a piece of land, without any right to it; and
the count expels the intruder, not in virtue of the rights of the
community—not a word of that—but simply in virtue of the rights
of private property, and because the intruder cannot justify his
possession by any legitimate title. Where do you find in all this the
action of a village community, of an association of the mark? If you
think you see it, it is assuredly not because it is in the original,
but because your preconceptions have put it there. We have here one of
the most striking examples of the result of the subjective method. Your
theory requires that a village community should be mentioned in some
early document, and you introduce the community into a document where
there is nothing about it. And still the mistake might easily have been
avoided; for we possess upon this very section xlv. a commentary which
was written in 819, and written not by some chance person, but by the
counsellors of Louis the Pious.[190] Now these men, who were most of
them judges, who consequently were in the habit of administering this
law and ought to have known its meaning, saw in it simply this: that
if a stranger came and settled himself without a title on land which
did not belong to him,[191] it needed only that a single inhabitant
should inform the count, and he would put an end to the usurpation.
But as there was a final clause to the effect that this work of giving
information ought to be performed within twelve months, and that, at
the expiration of that term, the intruder could remain on the land
and enjoy it in security,[192] the men of 819 demanded that this last
clause should be abrogated.[193] Nothing could be plainer than the
whole affair in the eyes of every one not under the influence of a
preconceived idea. But Professor Lamprecht chooses to suppose that “the
men of 819 did not understand this document” (p. 47). This is an easy
way out of the difficulty; to understand a document otherwise than
Professor Lamprecht understands it, is to misunderstand it. It is not
possible, however, to overlook the fact that these counsellors of Louis
the Pious were learned men, who spent half their lives in deciding
cases of law. It must also be remembered that article xlv. occurs in
the law as amended by Charles the Great; and that whatever was its
original source, it was still a part of the existing law and actually
in force. Copied, as it had been, by the counsellors of Charles,
how can it be supposed that it was not intelligible to his son’s
counsellors? I confess that, for my own part, I would rather understand
it as it was understood by the men of 819 than as it is understood by
Professor Lamprecht. I would rather translate it literally in all its
simplicity than put a village community into it, which is not otherwise
to be found there.
Professor Lamprecht cannot deny that the Salic law mentions enclosures
round corn-fields, meadows, and vineyards, and that this is an
indication of private property. According to him, it was the kings who
altered the old condition of things and introduced these novelties. But
this is mere hypothesis. He maintains that the forest and meadowland at
any rate continued to be common, and refers to article 27 of the Salic
law. You turn to the passage quoted, believing you will there find a
mention of a common forest, a forest where all are free to take wood.
You find exactly the contrary: “If any one has taken wood from the
forest of another, he shall pay a fine of three solidi.”[194]
This, then, is a forest which is someone’s private property, a forest
wherein none besides the owner has any rights. But Dr. Lamprecht is
not troubled by this. According to him, the words silva aliena
mean a common forest. But what should lead him to attribute this
unusual meaning to the words? “Because,” says he, “in the Salic law
the word silva is always used in the sense of common forest”
(p. 48). But the word silva occurs nowhere else except in
this section. He then translates aliena as if it signified
“foreign.” Here we have, indeed, to do with a word which recurs as
often as thirty-one times in Salic law; but in each of these thirty-one
cases its meaning is unmistakably “belonging to another.” The law,
for instance, speaks of messis aliena, sepem alienam,
hortum alienum, vinea aliena, servus alienus,
litum alienum, caballus alienus, sponsa aliena,
uxor aliena. The word is always synonymous with alterius,
which is often found taking its place; and these very words silva
aliena are replaced in several manuscripts by the words silva
alterius.[195] We must also notice that the whole of this section
27 concerns theft committed “in the field of another,” “in the garden
of another,” “in the vineyard of another,” and, finally, “in the forest
of another.” Doubt is impossible. In every case it is a matter of
private property; and the law uses precisely the same expressions about
a forest as about a vineyard or garden. Professor Lamprecht’s reading
of the passage is opposed to all the evidence. But it was necessary for
his argument that the forests should be common; he was only able to
find a single section of the law which bore upon forests, and, although
this section related to a forest belonging to a single owner, he could
not refrain from making use of it; and so he maintains that silva
aliena means exactly the opposite of what it does mean.
Again, Professor Lamprecht says (p. 48), that “the meadows were
common;” although nothing of the kind is mentioned in the Salic law or
in any other document. More than that, if it is a fact that the meadows
were common according to the Salic law, how is it that only once in the
Salic law is any reference made to meadows, and then only to punish
with the enormously heavy fine of 1500 denarii the person who takes
a cartload of hay from another man’s field (tit. xxvii., sections 10
and 11)? Professor Lamprecht also maintains that mills were common,
although the law only mentions mills belonging to private owners.[196]
He fastens on authorities which are absolutely opposed to his theory,
and then interprets them according to his liking. If, for instance,
he sees that the Salic law punishes severely “anyone who ploughs or
sows the field of another without the permission of the owner, extra
consilium domini,” he maintains that this regulation is in his eyes
an indication of community in land. If he sees in another place that a
man who is unable to pay a fine must swear “that he possesses nothing
upon the earth or under the earth;” this is so much proof that land is
not an object of private ownership. The word facultas occurs
frequently in documents of this period, and it always signifies a man’s
entire property, real and personal without distinction;[197] but, as
the theory requires that real property should not be too prominent in
Salic law, Professor Lamprecht supposes that the word applies only to
personal property.
Such is the character of the method he follows. By the aid of such
so-called scholarship everything is to be traced back to a primitive
community. Although the Frank documents of the Merovingian and
Carlovingian periods make no mention of such a community, although they
show exactly the opposite; the whole rural organisation, the entire
social life must be the outgrowth of this community of the mark.
“The mark is the foundation, substratum, of everything”
(p. 282). An infallible rule is supposed to have been found; and the
whole history of the Middle Ages, willy nilly, must be made to fit into
it.
M. Viollet’s theory as to community of land amongst the Greeks.
M. Viollet is a disciple of Maurer who copies and exaggerates his
master. The system that Maurer was able with some show of probability
to build up in relation to the Germanic peoples, M. Viollet supposes he
can extend to all nations ancient or modern. What is quite fresh in his
writings and exclusively his own, is, that he attributes to the ancient
Greeks a system of community in land which the most profound students
of Greek history had, up to this time, failed to discover. We must not
suppose that in laying down such a proposition, he is speaking of some
primitive age when the Greeks may be supposed to have been ignorant
of agriculture, and consequently of landed property. He is speaking
of the times when the Greeks were agriculturists, when they lived in
organised societies; he is speaking of Greek cities; and he declares
that the soil was for a long time cultivated by the city in common,
without its occurring to the family or the individual to appropriate
it. All the land, according to him, for a long time belonged not to
the individual, not to the family, but to the city.[198]
He states that “his theory is supported by authorities of considerable
weight” (p. 463); and he refers to eleven passages taken from Plato,
Virgil, Justin, Tibullus, Diodorus on the Lipari Isles, Diogenes
Laertius on Pythagoras, Aristotle on the town of Tarentum, Athenæus on
Spartan meals, Diodorus on the “klêrouchia,” and lastly, Theophrastus
on the sale of real property. Let us look at the originals. Let us see
at any rate whether M. Viollet’s references are altogether exact.
1. The first author quoted is Plato, “who still saw here and there
the vestiges of primitive community,” and M. Viollet tells us that he
finds this in the Laws of Plato (Book III.). I turn to the passage
mentioned, and this is what I find: “In very early times men lived
in a pastoral state, supporting themselves by their herds of cattle
and by hunting. At that time they had no laws. As to government, they
knew no other than the δυναστεία, the authority, that is, of the
master over his family and slaves. Like the Cyclops of Homer, they had
neither public assemblies nor justice; they lived in caverns; and each
ruled over his wife and children without troubling himself about his
neighbours.” This is what Plato says, describing from imagination a
primitive savage state. It must be some strange illusion which makes
M. Viollet suppose that this passage describes men as cultivating the
land in common. Plato says that they did not cultivate it at all. Where
does he see that the land belonged to the people? Plato says that at
this time there did not even exist a people. Where does he see that
men were associated for purposes of cultivation? Plato says that each
family lived apart, “without troubling itself about its neighbours.”
M. Viollet then has taken this passage in precisely the opposite sense
to the right one. Go through all the writings of the philosopher and
you will find that he has nowhere said “that in his time he still saw
the ruins of a primitive community.” Plato has, it is true, endowed his
ideal city with a particular system of community in land; but he never
says that it was practised in any actually existing city. Our first
authority, then, is proved to have been misrepresented.
2. M. Viollet next refers to Virgil, who, in the Georgics (i. 125),
describes a time “when the soil was neither divided nor marked out by
boundaries, and when everything was common.” This at first sight seems
convincing. The poet’s verse is correctly quoted.[199] But observe the
context. The whole passage is an imaginary description of a time when
men did not cultivate the soil: Ante Jovem nulli subigebant arva
coloni.... Ipsa tellus omnia liberius, nullo poscente, ferebat. So
long as men did not cultivate the ground, there could be no question
of dividing it among them as private property. Virgil goes on to say
that afterwards man learnt to till the ground, ut sulcis frumenti
quæreret herbam; but he no longer says that everything was in
common. It appears, then, that if M. Viollet had given it a little more
attention, he would have dispensed with the use of this passage; for
it describes savage life and has no connection at all with community
of land in the agricultural state. What can the golden age, whether it
existed or not, prove concerning the social life of Greek cities?
3. Next comes a quotation from Justin out of Trogus Pompeius. This
Gaul, trying to describe the remotest ages of Italy, says that there
was a time “when slavery and private property were unknown, and
everything was undivided.” The quotation is correct; but what is the
time referred to? The age before Jupiter, ante Jovem. This is as
much as to say, the golden age, or, if you prefer it, the savage state.
4. It is the same with the quotation from Tibullus; it applies “to
the time of King Saturn,” that is, to the præ-agricultural age, the
golden age of the imagination. If M. Viollet wished to prove that
in the golden age private property did not exist, he has succeeded
pretty well. But what has this to do with the Greek cities? M. Viollet
supposes that legends of this kind represent traditions of an earlier
state. This is exceedingly doubtful; and in any case they would be
traditions of a time when agriculture was unknown, and when there were
neither organised nations nor cities. If there were long ages when
mankind did not know how to till the ground, what does that prove in
relation to the time when they did cultivate it? We must not lose sight
of the proposition our author wishes to establish; it is that men, even
after they had entered into city life, cultivated the soil in common
instead of appropriating it individually. There is a certain want of
caution in thinking that you can prove a system of common cultivation
from legends which show the absence of all cultivation.
5. M. Viollet at last comes down to historical times and quotes a
passage from Diodorus Siculus. Let us first give his translation as if
it were scrupulously exact: “Certain Cnidians and Rhodians colonised
the Lipari Isles. As they had much to endure at the hands of Tyrrhenian
pirates, they armed some barks wherewith to defend themselves, and
divided themselves into two separate classes; one was intrusted
with the cultivation of the islands, which they declared common
property; to the other was committed the care of the defence.
Having thus thrown together all their possessions, and eating
together at public meals, they lived in common during several years;
but after a time they divided amongst themselves the land of Lipara on
which was their town; as to the other islands they continued for some
time to be cultivated in common. At last they divided all the islands
for a period of twenty years; and at the expiration of this term, they
drew lots for them anew.”
Much might be said about this translation, but we wish to be
brief.[200] M. Viollet ought, in the first place, to have mentioned
the date of this event, since Diodorus gives it: it happened in the
fiftieth Olympiad, that is about the year 575. Now, long before this,
Cnidus and Rhodes had had a system of private property, and had no
trace of common ownership. So these Cnidians and Rhodians may, very
likely, have made an experiment of this kind; but it is impossible that
their action should illustrate a survival of primitive community as M.
Viollet maintains.[201]
The account of the Greek historian also plainly shows the motive which
determined these men to leave the land for some time undivided: it was
because the Tyrrhenian pirates ravaged the islands to such an extent
that the Greeks were obliged to separate into two divisions, the one
fighting, the other tilling the ground.[202] But Diodorus goes on
to say that this manner of life only lasted a few years. So soon as
they had freed themselves from the pirates, the Greeks made a regular
settlement in the island of Lipara, that is in the largest and most
important island of the little group. They built a town there; and at
the same time “they made a partition of the soil.” Now, this partition
was never made over again; it was a distribution of shares to be
held in perpetuity, that is, as private property. M. Viollet passes
over this too hastily; it is of the utmost importance, for it shows
us that private property was established directly the Greeks were in
anything like a settled condition. The fact that the other islets, more
difficult to cultivate and less securely held, remained for some time
longer undivided, does not imply that these people lived in a state
of agrarian communism. Each of them was a landed proprietor in the
main island, and enjoyed certain rights over one of the islets.[203]
But even this arrangement did not last long, and the small islands
were parcelled out in their turn. There was, it is true, a provisional
partition at first, to last for twenty years; there are several very
likely explanations for this precautionary measure. Whatever the reason
may have been, at the end of twenty years the partition was made over
again, and this time it was permanent; for Diodorus never says that a
division took place periodically down to his own time.[204]
The whole account of the Greek historian points to the fact that the
Greek emigrants established what was customary throughout Greece, a
system of private ownership. In order to thoroughly understand it, we
must compare this with similar passages in which the same historian
shows us Greek colonists dividing the soil amongst themselves from
the very first day of their settlement.[205] The settlement of these
Cnidians and Rhodians differs from other instances only in this, that
it was necessary, for reasons which Diodorus indicates, to postpone the
partition for some years. This is what the historian wished to tell
us; he never says that these people thought of establishing common
ownership: they had no more disposition for it than other Greeks.
Whatever communism they may have practised was not an institution,
but a temporary condition of things, lasting for a brief period, with
no past and no future. Private property was with them, as with all
other Greeks, the normal state of things. The account of Diodorus is,
we see, the reverse of M. Viollet’s statement; and it is startling to
find M. Viollet writing, that “as late as the time of the Emperor
Augustus, private property was not yet established amongst these
Greeks, at the very gates of Rome” (p. 468).
6. M. Viollet now passes on to Pythagoras. On the evidence of a
biography of the philosopher written eight hundred years after his
death, he relates that Pythagoras got together as many as two thousand
disciples, and induced them to live in common. This may be true; but
does the fact that a philosopher succeeded in founding a phalanstery,
which did not outlast himself, prove that it was habitual at that
time for people to live together in common? It seems to me that it
proves exactly the opposite. If the disciples of Pythagoras were forced
to leave their towns in order to found a communistic settlement, it
was because the life in the towns was not communistic. It is certain
that this institution of Pythagoras was something exceptional, which
left no trace behind it. The story itself, when we look at it, has no
connection with a primitive community in land. But notice M. Viollet’s
method of proceeding. Just because he comes across these two thousand
(others say six hundred) disciples of Pythagoras, he concludes that
“we have here the origin of many of the towns in Greater Greece; this
shows that these towns were founded and settled under a system of
undivided property.” Nothing of the kind. They were all founded before
Pythagoras, and outlived him; and neither before nor after his time did
they recognise a system of undivided property.[206]
7. We now come to an instance which would appear to be more historical.
“The citizens of Tarentum,” says M. Viollet, “seem to have preserved
something of their old community in land down to the time of
Aristotle.” And he refers to the Politics vi. 3, 5. You turn
to the passage quoted and you read as follows: “It is the duty of an
intelligent aristocracy to watch over the poor and to furnish them
with employment. We should do well to imitate the men of Tarentum;
they have portions of land whereof they leave to the poor the common
enjoyment (literally, which they make common to the poor for their
enjoyment[207]), and in this way they secure the attachment of the
lower people.” We see how far removed the original is from M. Viollet’s
interpretation of it. Aristotle says nothing whatever of a communistic
system. He places Tarentum amongst aristocratic States, and shows that
there were poor people, ἄποροι, in it; only he points out that the
rich took care to set apart certain land for the use of these
poor, in order to win their attachment.[208] M. Viollet has mistaken a
charitable institution for a communistic one, though it is perfectly
clear that what Aristotle describes was merely a concession made by
the rich to the poor; that is to say, it was precisely the opposite of
communism.
8. M. Viollet tells us that there are “other survivals which enable
us to travel back in thought to primitive common-ownership: there are
the common meals;” and he devotes fully three pages to the common
meals of the Greeks. He begins with the meal which the Spartans called
Copis; describes it in detail from Athenæus, and concludes (p.
471): “All this is primitive, and we have here the common meal in all
its early simplicity.” Now, it unluckily happens that the meal called
copis was in no way a common meal. Ancient writers tell us that
the Spartans had some private meals;[209] the copis was one of
them. Read the page from Athenæus which M. Viollet has translated; read
it in the original;[210] and not only will you not find a word which
suggests that the copis was a public meal, but you will find clear
evidence to the contrary. “Whoever likes gives the copis, κοπιζει ὁ
βουλόμενος,” and he who gives it invites to it whomsoever he pleases,
“whether Spartan or stranger.” Such are not the characteristics of
public meals ordered and arranged by the State. Let us add that the
Greek writer lays stress upon the religious character of this meal;
it ought to be celebrated before the god παρὰ τὸν θεὸν, i.e.,
in front of a temple and in presence of the image of the divinity.
Ancient rites are observed; a tent must first be built with branches
of trees, and the ground strewn with boughs for the company to recline
upon; the only meat which may be used is goats’ flesh; and each guest
must be presented with a particular kind of loaf, made according to a
fixed rule both as to its ingredients and shape. These rites will not
surprise anyone who is familiar with early Greek life. Every Spartan
could give this repast when he pleased; but the usual custom in the
town was to give it “at the festival called Tithenidia, celebrated to
secure the health of children;” and the nurses used to bring the little
boys to it. The description of Athenæus is perfectly clear. M. Viollet
has committed the error of mistaking a private and religious meal for a
common meal, and of supposing that he sees in it a sign of community in
land.
There still remain the true common meals, which took place daily or
almost daily at Sparta, and which were called συσσίτια. M. Viollet
says at once that they are evidence of community. It seems reasonable
to argue: “If men eat the fruits of the earth in common, it is because
in primitive times the earth itself was common;” but we think that
M. Viollet ought to have distrusted this apparently logical process
of reasoning. If he had studied this institution of common meals at
Sparta in the original writers, he could not have failed to notice
four circumstances: 1. It does not date from the earliest period of
the city; and far from being connected with a time when land may have
been common, it is later than the institution at Sparta of private
property.[211] 2. These common meals did not constitute a common life;
for in the first place the men alone partook of them, not the women
nor the children;[212] and in the second place, the men did not take
all the meals of the day together, but only one, that of the evening.
3. The expenses of the meal were not defrayed by the community, by the
State, but each man had to bring his contribution, which was fixed
at a medimnus of flour a month, eight congii of wine,
some fruit, and a sum of money for the purchase of meat.[213] This
is something very different from citizens being fed in common by the
State; they had to eat in common, but each ate at his own expense,
because each was the owner of property. 4. The common meals were so
far from representing community in goods, that poor Spartans were not
admitted to them; a fact which is distinctly mentioned by Aristotle,
who goes on to say that these meals were the least democratic things in
the world.[214]
It is the greatest mistake to imagine all the Spartans eating of the
same dishes at the same table. The so-called common meals were taken
in small groups of fifteen members each, in separate houses. Every one
was free to choose the group which he wished to join; but he was not
admitted except by the unanimous vote of the members composing it.[215]
We also know that the meals were somewhat luxurious, and that the
famous black broth, μελάς ζῶμος, was merely the prelude to them.[216]
It is, then, very evident that these common repasts, whose meaning
or object we need not here try to discover, have not the slightest
connection with a common life and certainly not with community in
land.[217]
M. Viollet also refers to the feasts which the fifty Athenian
prytanes used to celebrate near the sacred hearth; reminds us
that when the young Athenian was received into the phratria, the
phratria performed a sacrifice which was followed by a feast;
and refers to the feasts which the Roman curiae celebrated
before an altar on certain festivals. But one must indeed be dominated
by a fixed idea to suppose that these three different kinds of feasts
are a proof of community in land. It is exceedingly ingenious to say
that “these meals are the lingering evidence of a primitive nomad life
and of community in the soil;”[218] but the fact is that they were
simply religious ceremonies. They were celebrated around an altar,
according to prescribed rites. The custom of a common meal in the
presence of the divinity is found in many religions.
9. For his ninth proof, M. Viollet sets before us “a widespread
tradition which represents the inhabitants of a country as dividing
its soil amongst themselves;” and in support of this he gives a few
references to Diodorus. He might have given many more, and to other
writers also.[219] What he takes for a vague tradition is an historical
fact perfectly well known and authenticated. We know that every Greek
city preserved the memory of its foundation, which was the occasion of
a yearly festival. This tradition was handed down either by means of
religious songs repeated from year to year without any change, or on
bronze inscriptions kept in a temple. It is from these sacred records
that we obtain such exact evidence as to the founding and founder of
each city. Now these records lay stress on two circumstances; the
founding of the town on a given day by the performance of a religious
ceremony; and the division of the land amongst the citizens,—a
division which was effected by a drawing of lots, called κληρουχία or
κληροδοσία. These two operations took place at the same time; we might
almost say on the same day. Where M. Viollet makes the mistake is in
saying that “this division presupposes primitive community, and puts an
end to an era of non-division” (p. 473). It is precisely the contrary;
for whenever we see Greek emigrants making settlements on territory
either previously unoccupied or else conquered by them, we find them
immediately founding a town and immediately dividing the
soil.[220] The soil may have been conquered in common, but not for
one single year is it cultivated in common. They do not divide it “in
order to get out of a system of non-division”; but they make haste to
divide the country that they have just found unoccupied or have just
conquered, so that it shall not remain for one moment undivided.
In those cities, indeed, which date from very early times, there was no
occasion for a division. We do not find it in Athens. Why? Because we
know that Attica was at first occupied by some hundreds of independent
families, γένη; and that these families afterwards were grouped into
phratries, and finally into a city. There is no partition here, for
each family keeps the land which has belonged to it for centuries. But
when it is a case of a colony, a body of people who emigrate and take
possession of fresh territory, a division is quite needful. Only this
division does not, as M. Viollet would suppose, come at the end of a
period of non-division; it is the first step in the establishment of
the colony. The practice is one of the most re-markable, and one of the
best authenticated of those early times. It proves that the Greek city
never cultivated its land in common; that it had no wish for a common
ownership of the soil; that the very idea of such a system was unknown
to it. If M. Viollet had studied the κληρουχία in all the authorities
which refer to it, he would not have supposed for a moment that it
could be a proof of community in land, and he would have taken care not
to bring it forward in support of a theory of which it is in reality
the refutation.
10. I shall not dwell long upon another argument of M. Viollet’s (p.
481). I have elsewhere pointed out that in the most ancient Greek law,
as well as in early Hindoo law and with many other peoples, the land
originally attached to a family was so closely bound up with it that
it could neither be sold, nor transferred to another family, either
by bequest or as dower.[221] This rule is clearly explained in many
Greek writings; it is the result of the conception of property not
as an individual right, but as a family right. A father was compelled
to leave it to his sons. Even if there were no son, he could not
bequeath or sell it; it must pass to the nearest relation. M. Viollet
imagines that there is another explanation. The prohibition of sale
and bequest results, according to him, from the circumstance that land
was originally common to all. I do not follow the argument. If the
soil was originally the common property of the people, and the people
maintained a kind of eminent domain over it (which is M. Viollet’s
theory), one cannot see why the law should have forbidden the sale of
land to another member of the same people; one cannot see why the law
should have prohibited any family from parting with it, even in favour
of the people itself. The old rule, or rather the ancient custom which
forbids a family to separate itself from its land, cannot be a proof
of community in land. It only proves the ownership of property by the
family. As Plato says, in a passage where he expresses not his own
private utopias but the ideas of the men of his time: “You cannot leave
your property to whomsoever you please, because your property belongs
to your family, that is, to your ancestors and your descendants.”[222]
The hypothesis that M. Viollet sets against this is purely fanciful.
He appears to believe that the restriction as to sale and bequest
weakened the rights of property; he does not observe that it renders
inheritance more absolute, and secures the rights of the family. One
may search through the whole of Greek law and the whole of Greek
literature without finding either the “eminent domain” of the State, or
a restoration of the land to a supposed ownership common.
11. M. Viollet’s last argument is taken from a passage of Theophrastus.
When Greek law at last authorised the sale of land—property being from
that time onwards looked upon as an individual right,—it required
that the sale should take place under certain conditions of publicity.
“Many legislators,” says Theophrastus, “require that sales should be
made by a public crier, and that they should be announced several days
beforehand; others prefer that they should take place in the presence
of a magistrate; while some lay down that notice of sale must be posted
up for sixty days. There are two motives for all this: in the first
place that claims may be presented against the seller, and secondly,
that all may know who is the new owner.” This sentence is perfectly
clear; it tells us that a sale ought to be made publicly, so that it
may be surrounded by all possible guarantees; but M. Viollet sees in it
something different from this. “If the public are present,” he says,
“it is because the land belongs to the people” (pp. 484-485). This
is drawing a conclusion of which Theophrastus never dreamt. When he
described the various kinds of publicity which were enjoined in the
matter of sale, and when he explained in such a natural manner the
reasons for this publicity, he did not suppose that his meaning would
be so far distorted as to lead to the conclusion that the land had once
been common. But M. Viollet has a fixed idea and follows it. If he
reads that neighbours act as witnesses to a sale, he adds that their
consent had doubtless to be asked, since the land properly belonged to
all. If he reads in another passage that it was the custom in a certain
town for the purchaser to present three of the neighbours with a small
piece of money, so that they might afterwards remember the act and be
able to vouch for it, he at once adds that “this piece of money is
the price which the purchaser pays to the three neighbours for their
original rights over the land.” All this is pure imagination. The
Greeks certainly did not connect any idea of community in land with
these simple customs.
Such, then, are the eleven authorities by whose help M. Viollet tries
to prove that the early Greek cities held their land in common during a
period more or less protracted. M. Viollet does not give a single other
reference. Now the first taken from Plato, the fifth from Diodorus,
and the seventh about Tarentum are absolutely incorrect; the second,
third and fourth from Virgil, Trogus Pompeius and Tibullus are beside
the subject, since they apply to the tradition of a savage state
which does not here concern us; the sixth, the one about Pythagoras,
points to an exceptional episode, only lasting for a brief period, and
clearly not in harmony with Greek habits; the eighth, about public
meals, has been misunderstood; the ninth about the κλερουχίαι, and
the tenth concerning the primitive inalienability of land belonging
to the family, are absolutely opposed to M. Viollet’s theory; the
eleventh points to publicity of sale, not community in land. And so out
of eleven quotations or arguments there is not a single one which on
examination stands firm.
And this is not all. Supposing that there could be found in the whole
of Greek literature two or three, or even eleven, quotations, which
seemed to imply community in land, it would still be the duty of every
serious historian to look at the evidence on the other side; to search,
that is, for other passages or other facts which point to an opposite
conclusion. It did not occur to M. Viollet to do this. If he should
ever think of undertaking the task, I venture to point out to him four
classes of authorities or of facts: 1st, Those to be found in Homer,
Hesiod and the most ancient documents, which show us the land held as
private property, with no mention or trace of community. 2nd, Those
vestiges of the oldest Greek law which have come down to us, which do
not contain the slightest trace of a state of things in which the land
belonged to the people, and which do contain, on the contrary, precise
rules as to family property. 3rd, The rites of ancient religions, which
show the worship of land and of consecrated bounds; and this side by
side with the worship of the dead. 4th, and finally, the records of
all the κληρουχίαι; that is, the division of the soil into hereditary
portions, a division which was made on the very day of the founding
of each city, and almost implies an actual inaptitude for common
ownership. Here will be found, not eleven imaginary pieces of evidence,
but a whole body of evidence and of facts; and this mass of evidence
proves precisely the opposite of a system of community. History would
be too easy a science if it were enough to pick out here and there
isolated lines and interpret them as one liked. Every authority
ought to be consulted, the whole of Greek literature ought to
be studied, in treating of such a problem as M. Viollet’s. One cannot
judge of the whole Greek world from a chance occurrence in the Lipari
isles. Eleven quotations, which, even if they were exact, would be
insignificant in comparison with the rest of Greek literature, are
not enough to build a system upon. What is especially surprising is
that the author of such a theory should not have thought of studying
either the law, or the beliefs, or the permanent institutions of the
Greeks. He has solved the question without so much as setting himself
to investigate it.
May I add that I am sorry to find myself taken to task by M. Viollet?
“M. Fustel,” he says (p. 464), “was unable to recognise this great
historical fact (i.e., the supposed community in land), because
he saw that every family had its own hearth, its own worship, its
own ancestors.” This is true. I willingly grant that the facts which
I saw, and which I have completely proved, prevented me from seeing
the imaginary facts that M. Viollet thought he descried in his eleven
quotations. He further adds (p. 465), that since I admitted the
existence of property common to the family, it was an easy thing to go
a little further and recognise, as he did, the common-ownership of the
people. Here M. Viollet throws a little too much light upon his own
method of proceeding. According to him, an historian who recognises
one fact or institution ought to guess at another fact or institution,
merely because there is an apparent analogy between them; in this way
logic takes the place of evidence, and the imagination can construct
all the systems it chooses. I am not bold enough for this; I do not
find in history what I wish to find, but only what is there. I am
careful not to insert anything I do not find. I saw in ancient law and
ancient religion the co-proprietorship of the family, and I said so.
I did not see the common ownership of the whole people, and I did not
say I did. History is not a science of speculation; it is a science of
observation.
No one, moreover, but M. Viollet, considers that the co-proprietorship
of the family and the common ownership of the whole people “are two
things which resemble one another.” It is clear to every careful
observer that they are essentially different, both in character and
in results. The co-proprietorship of the family is an ownership which
is complete, absolute, hereditary, independent even of the State.
If it is undivided, it is because the family at this time is itself
still undivided. It is, besides, legally in the hands of the head of
the family, the real owner, who is absolute master of it, and does
what he likes with it; but who can neither transfer it or bequeath it
“because he owes it to his descendants such as he has received it from
his ancestors.” What resemblance is there between such a system and
one under which the land would be common to all, and belong to a whole
nation?
I shall not dwell at length on the second portion of M. Viollet’s
work, in which he gives a hasty and superficial glance at the Middle
Ages. Here I have not been more fortunate than before in verifying his
evidence. For example: he dwells at length upon the prior right of
purchase which belonged to neighbours. Everyone knows of this custom,
the meaning and reason of which are obvious enough. But in M. Viollet’s
eyes this right of the neighbours is a vestige of community in land.
He does not notice that the preference given in case of sale to a
neighbouring proprietor over a distant one has nothing to do with
community. Under a system of common ownership this prior claim of the
neighbour would not be found. The two things are incompatible. The
right of the neighbour is a custom belonging essentially to private
property; it is a grave error to convert it into a communistic practice.
Further on, M. Viollet speaks of the Franks; he represents them as
“dwelling in small groups called villæ or genealogiæ.”
One must never have seen in the charters what a villa is, to
imagine it a group of men; and it is something more than rashness to
identify the villa with the genealogia. M. Viollet says
again that amongst the Franks “the tie of neighbourhood was so strong
as to hold in check the rights of blood in matters of succession;” and
he does not notice that this is absolutely opposed to the explicit
statement of the Salic law. He maintains that the Frank villa
was a village community, and quotes section xlv. of the Salic law,
which not only does not say one single word about a community, but,
on the contrary, one is surprised to find, has nothing whatever
to do with one. He maintains that the Ripuarian law requires “the
consent of the community” to a sale of land, and quotes a section of
the law which merely says that the sale ought to take place in the
presence of witnesses and in a public place. It is his own addition
that these witnesses are “a community,” and that they have to give
their “consent.” Elsewhere he maintains that the Thuringians were
unacquainted with the sale of land, and his only proof is the section
of the law which authorises such a sale. He says again that according
to the Ripuarian law real property could only be sold by virtue of
a royal writ; and he supports this statement by a reference to the
section of the law which enacts that the purchaser of an estate shall
demand a written document from the seller.
M. Viollet’s quotations are always exact in this respect, that the line
he quotes is to be found at the place mentioned; their inexactness
merely consists in this, that the same line taken with its context
means precisely the opposite of what M. Viollet says. In the same
way he once quoted a passage from a document of 890 in which he
found the word communes; surely this meant community in land,
collective ownership. Unluckily it turned out that the document did
not contain any reference to community, or even to a village, or to
cultivators of the soil; it concerned a dispute between two landowners,
an abbot and a count. The adjective communes related not to
lands, but to certain “customary rights in a royal forest.” The abbot
declared that “these common rights were his,” free of charge, while
the count maintained that the abbot had always paid a rent, sub
conductione. All this is evidently the very opposite of community;
but M. Viollet had seen the word communes, and that was
enough.[223] I have gone through his whole work in a similar manner and
tried to find a reference that was to the point; and I have not found
one.
Mommsen’s theory as to community of land amongst the Romans.
One never for a moment expected to find agrarian communism amongst
the Romans; in the first place because Rome was one of the youngest
of the cities of the ancient world, and, at the date of its birth,
private property had long held sway in Italy; and, in the second
place, because it is well known that the Romans had a very precise
and very firm conception of the right of private property, and did as
much as any other ancient people to define and protect it. And yet
Professor Mommsen states that with the Romans “land was originally
held in common;” that “community in land is closely bound up with the
constitution of the city;” that “it was only in later times that the
land was divided amongst the citizens as private property.”[224] In
support of this assertion, the learned and able historian gives three
references—to Cicero, Dionysius of Halicarnassus, and Plutarch. But on
examining these three references it seems to me that none of them says
exactly what Professor Mommsen makes them say.
The first is from Cicero in the De Republica, II., 14. Numa
agros quos bello Romulus ceperat divisit viritim civibus. The
meaning of this passage is that the lands which had been conquered by
Romulus in his wars with the neighbouring cities had not been divided
by him amongst the citizens. But it does not prove, as we shall
presently see, that the small Roman territory occupied prior to these
conquests was not divided when the city was founded. The quotation from
Cicero applies to a certain area of land; it does not apply to all
land. It does not imply that no division had taken place before this
time; and Cicero does not say a single word which can refer to a period
of community.
The second reference is to Dionysius of Halicarnassus, II., 74; and
the following is a literal translation: “Numa enacted laws concerning
the boundaries of estates; he laid down that each man should surround
his land with a boundary and set up landmarks of stone; he dedicated
these landmarks to the god Terminus, and ordained that sacrifices
should be offered up to him every year; he appointed the festival of
the Terminalia.” That the second king of Rome drew up regulations for
the worship of boundaries cannot be regarded as distinctly proving that
before his time there were no boundaries; and certainly it is not clear
evidence that till then private property did not exist. The historian
does not say that in the preceding generation the Romans lived under a
system of common ownership of land. On the contrary, he says a little
earlier that the founder of the city did divide the territory as other
founders were wont to do. In so doing he had paid attention to the
social divisions already existing; and as the people were divided into
thirty curiæ, he apportioned the territory into thirty lots in such a
manner that the members of each curia might remain together. Dionysius
adds that the founder, when dividing the land, reserved a part to form
the ager publicus, i.e., the property of the State.
This piece of information proves beyond doubt that in the mind of the
historian the whole territory was not ager publicus, as M.
Mommsen thinks. Dionysius of Halicarnassus indicates distinctly that
the distinction between ager publicus and ager privatus
dates from the earliest days of the Roman city.
The third authority quoted is Plutarch, Life of Numa, 16: “The
Roman city had in the beginning only a small territory; Romulus gained
for it by conquest an additional territory larger than its old one; and
the whole of this was divided by Numa amongst the poor citizens.” This
passage, like the one from Cicero, states that a division was effected
by the second king; but at the same time it draws a distinction
between the two territories; and it is not possible to draw from it
the conclusion that the district first occupied had not been already
divided.
Thus not one of three passages quoted by M. Mommsen seems to me to have
the meaning he attributes to it. Not one of the three implies that the
Romans held their land in common even for a single generation. Other
authorities also, which must not be passed over, expressly tell us of
this earlier partition, the recollection of which was preserved, as
was that of everything else connected with the founding of the city.
Besides Dionysius of Halicarnassus whom we have already referred to
(II. 7), Varro, who was as learned as a man could well be at that
time, declares that Romulus divided the territory into hereditary
portions, each consisting of but two jugera[225] (about an acre
and a quarter). The elder Pliny, Nonius and Festus give us the same
information.[226] But this first partition, which is contemporaneous
with the very foundation of the city, did not follow upon a period of
non-division. No Roman historian makes any such statement as that the
land remained for a period undivided.
M. Mommsen tries to dispose of these statements, and argues as follows:
Two jugera are too little to support a family; therefore we
cannot consider that this was a real partition of the territory; and
it necessarily follows that the families must have lived under some
kind of communistic system, with a common use of the public lands. An
ingenious process of reasoning, but nothing more; mere guess-work. The
question is not as M. Mommsen thinks, whether two jugera are
enough for the support of a family; but rather whether the founder,
who had only a very small extent of territory at his disposal, with a
population already numerous, could grant more. The lots were too small,
as it would appear, because the territory also was too small; but we
cannot deduce from this, as M. Mommsen does, that the Romans followed
some system of communism. The insufficiency of the land, besides, gives
a reason for the conquests which were soon afterwards effected under
Romulus.
In conclusion, it appears to me exceedingly rash to maintain that
the Romans had at first a system of common ownership of land. Such a
statement is not supported by any ancient authority. On the contrary,
the early writers describe a partition of land which takes place at
the very time when the city is founded; and the land thus divided
becomes complete and hereditary property. Some years later the city
conquers fresh territory; and again, with but little delay, it is
divided into private property. This is all that we are told.
We are, however, able to gather that these two successive partitions
were not in every respect alike. The first related only to the ager
Romanus, i.e., to that part of the territory which was
in primitive times attached to the Urbs; the second related
to conquered territory. In the first, the ground was distributed
amongst the curiæ, each curia then distributing it amongst its
gentes, whence it came about that these lots for a long time
retained the name of the several Roman gentes; in the second
partition, which followed the first but did not annul it, the land was
divided according to heads, viritim. This innovation will be
seen to be of deep importance by any one who is acquainted with the
ideas of the ancients and with ancient law. At the time of the first
division, property still belonged to the family; at the second, it
belonged to the individual. Thus, then, the two kinds of proprietary
right that the ancient world successively recognised are seen, one
after the other, with an interval of but forty years between. The
Roman nation was one of the first to substitute individual for family
property. They made use of bequest and sale from an early date. Roman
law did indeed retain some traces of the early rights of the family;
but what really characterises it is that it brought about the triumph
of the system of individual ownership.
On the application of the comparative method to this problem.
It is impossible to deny that the comparative method is not only of use
but also absolutely indispensable in dealing with a subject of this
kind. In order to discover the origin of property in land among mankind
it is plain that every nation must be studied; at any rate every nation
that has left any trace behind it. Some part of this work of comparison
had already been attempted by Maurer; but he had limited himself to the
Slavonic and Scandinavian countries. A great and powerful writer, Sir
Henry Maine, has applied the comparative method to India. But the first
to attempt what I may call “universal comparison,” is, if I mistake
not, M. Emile de Laveleye, in his work, “On Property and its Primitive
Forms,” published in 1874. His theory is that the agricultural groups
of the whole world, from India to Scotland, for a long time cultivated
the soil in common, and that “the history of all lands reveals to us a
primitive condition of collectivity.” M. de Laveleye is an economist;
but it is by historical evidence that he endeavours to support his
thesis, and it is this evidence that I shall now proceed to test. His
reputation either as economist or moralist can receive no injury from a
purely historical discussion.
He passes in review one after the other (I am following the order of
his chapters) the Slavs of Russia, the island of Java, ancient India,
the German Mark, the Arabs of Algeria, the ancient Moors of Spain,
the Yoloffs of the coast of Guinea, the Afghans, the ancient Greeks,
the ancient Romans, England, the Southern Slavs, Switzerland and the
Netherlands. Here we have peoples of every race, every degree of
latitude, and every age; yet this list does not include all nations. To
mention only some of the ancient world, we do not find here the ancient
Egyptians, the ancient Jews, or the ancient Assyrians, peoples which,
nevertheless, are much better known than the Yoloffs, the Javanese, or
the ancient Germans. Why are they not here? Can it be because all the
documents concerning them, however far back we may go, bear witness to
the custom of private ownership, and do not show a trace of community
in land? It is certain that the history of Egypt shows the existence
of property from the remotest times. It is certain that contracts
for the sale of land have been discovered upon Babylonian bricks. It
is certain, also, that the sacred books of the Jews refer to property
and the sale of land as far back as the time of Abraham (Genesis
XXIII.). Was it for this reason that they were omitted in the universal
comparison of all nations? But as our author was seeking a general rule
for the whole human race, and says that he has found it, he ought not
to pass over a single people of whom we know anything. When one seeks
to construct a general system, the facts which contradict it must be
presented as well as those in its favour. This is the first rule of the
comparative method.
Having insisted on this omission, of which every one will see the
importance, I shall consider one by one the nations spoken of by our
author, and verify his assertions.
1. Among the Slavs of Russia M. de Laveleye observes the mir,
i.e., a village dividing its soil annually or every few years
among its members. In this mir he recognises an association
with common ownership of the soil. “The mir alone,” he says,
“owns the land, and individuals have nothing more than the enjoyment of
it, turn and turn about.” On this I have two observations to make. In
the first place, the Russian mir is only a village and a small
village, the population rarely exceeding two hundred souls; it always
cultivates the same land; so that if this be a communistic group it is
at any rate one which is confined to a narrow radius. The mir
by no means represents a “tribal community,” still less a “national
community.” One cannot conclude from the mir that the Russian
nation follows a system of agrarian communism, or that the soil is the
property of the whole nation, or that the soil is common to everyone;
so that the example departs widely from the thesis that is sought to be
maintained.
In the second place, if we examine the mir as it was before
the reforms of the last Czar but one, we discover that the mir
is not owner of the soil, but is itself owned by some one else.
In the mir, lands and men alike belong to a lord; and lord
and landowner are one. M. de Laveleye does not deny this fact; he
even recognises “that the mir pays the rent to the lord
collectively.” This single fact makes the whole theory fall to the
ground. Since the soil belongs not to the mir, but to some one
else, the mir does not represent agrarian communism. It is a
village, like all our villages of the Middle Ages, which is the private
property of a single individual; the peasants are only tenants or
serfs; the only peculiarity about it is, that these peasants who pay
rent for the land collectively also cultivate it collectively.
It is true that there are certain theorists who say: “It is probable
that there was a time when the landlord did not exist, and when the
land was possessed in common by the peasants.” This is precisely what
would have to be proved. They ought first to prove that the landowner
or lord at one time did not exist, and next that the peasants then
possessed the land in common. Now these are two propositions in support
of which no one has ever been able to bring forward proof or even an
appearance of proof. On the contrary, according to M. Tchitchérin and
other writers who have studied the subject, it has been proved that
the association of the mir has only been in existence for three
hundred years; that it was created in the year 1592; and that far from
being the result of a spontaneous and ancient growth, it was instituted
by the act of a despotic Government, by an ukase of the Czar Fédor
Ivanovitch. Before this epoch land in Russia was an object of private
property; so one is led to believe by the documents of donation and
bequest quoted by M. Tchitchérin. I am aware that the question is
still warmly discussed and remains obscure; but so long as documents
proving the existence of the mir before the 16th century
are not produced, we must continue to doubt whether the mir
is an ancient institution at all. So far as we know at present, it
only came into existence with the feudal period; it forms one of the
wheels of the feudal organisation in Russia—a group of serfs, which
the Government requires to cultivate its land in common, so as to
be more sure of the payment of the rent. Far from being collective
ownership, the mir is collective serfdom. That, at any rate,
is what appears from the material in our possession. Theorists are at
perfect liberty to hope that new documents will come to light which
will show the contrary. Till then, it is impossible to bring forward
the mir as a proof that the human race once practised agrarian
communism.
2. M. de Laveleye passes on to the island of Java, and describes the
condition of things there in a chapter full of interest; in some places
the soil is cultivated in common, it is in others annually divided. But
I cannot help noticing that throughout he is speaking of the present
time. He describes the condition of things as they are now. He makes
use of the regulations of the Dutch Government, of laws of 1853, of
parliamentary reports of 1869. The furthest date to which he goes back
is to certain regulations of 1806. And yet, since he is dealing with
the problem of the origin of property, what one wants to hear about is
the ancient state of things. I am aware that some people will at once
say “such a system must be old;” but a student who has any critical
instinct will rather say that the present existence of such a system
proves nothing at all in relation to earlier times. And, indeed, we
read in one of the reports on which M. de Laveleye relies, that “this
system began with the cultivation of indigo, sugar and coffee for the
benefit of the Dutch Government.”[227] The sort of communism we are now
considering would in this case be but a recent institution, a creation
of the European conquerors. It is true that others make it commence
earlier, with the cultivation of rice.[228] This is easily explained:
“Rice growing in water requires a system of irrigation, which would
be impossible without association; and this necessity gives rise to
the practice of common cultivation.” It has been ascertained how these
villages arose. “Several families agree to establish a system of
irrigation in common. As the water has been brought by the co-operation
of all, the result is that the land irrigated by it is cultivated
by all.”[229] But it is apparent that the soil does not belong to
the nation or the tribe; it belongs to a group, an association. An
association of proprietors is not communism; it is one of the forms of
property.
We must also observe that private property does exist in Java. In six
out of the twenty provinces of the island that alone is to be found,
and association is unknown; in eight the two methods are practised side
by side; in six association is only practised on the rice fields and
irrigated lands, and the rest of the land is held entirely as private
property. From these facts I cannot draw the conclusion that community
in land was a primitive and natural institution in the island of Java.
We meet with it only under modern circumstances, and even here we must
recognise that it is less a community than an association.
3. Our author next devotes a few words to ancient India, and here I
shall imitate his brevity. He gives but one reference; a sentence from
Nearchus, the officer of Alexander the Great. I shall give it first
as translated by M. de Laveleye, and then as it really is. “Nearchus
informs us that in certain districts of India the land was cultivated
in common by tribes, which, at the close of the year, divided
the crop among them.” Now the Greek signifies: “In other parts the work
of agriculture is carried on by each family in common, κατὰ
σνγγένειαν κοινῇ; and when the crops have been gathered each person
takes his share for his support during the year.”[230] We see that M.
de Laveleye had overlooked the words κατὰ σνγγένειαν. He has mistaken
a community of the family for a community of the tribe. I know that
many people only too readily identify the two things; but a little
attention will show that they are essentially different. When a family,
even though it may form a large group of persons, cultivates its land
in common, this is not agrarian communism; it is merely an undivided
family and undivided family property.
4. M. de Laveleye next speaks of the Germanic mark. Here he does not
do more than reproduce Maurer’s theory, on which he relies without
apparently having verified a single one of his references.
5. Then follows a chapter on agrarian communities amongst the Arabs
of Algeria, the Moors of Spain, the Yoloffs of the coast of Guinea,
the Mexicans, the Caribeans, the Afghans and the Tchérémisses. A
story or sentence from some traveller is quoted about each of these
nations. As to this I have one remark to make: there is nothing rarer
or more difficult than an accurate observation. This truth, which is
recognised in all other sciences, ought also to be recognised by every
one who is dealing with history; for history is precisely that one of
all the sciences in which observation is most difficult and demands
the greatest attention. A traveller makes the general statement that
amongst the Caribeans or the Yoloffs he has seen a partition of land,
or has been told that such a thing was customary. But has he observed
between whom the partition took place? Was it amongst the members of
the same family, or amongst all the inhabitants of the same village, or
between the villages and all the various parts of the tribe or nation?
These are shades of differences that a hasty traveller cannot notice,
and that an historian equally hasty refrains from inquiring into. And
yet, the character and consequences of the partition depend altogether
upon the answer to this question. The study of a social system is a
serious undertaking, and one not often to be met with in travellers’
tales.
And then we must ask whether, side by side with certain facts reported
by travellers, there are not others which contradict them. You see
common land among certain Arab tribes; but it must also be noticed that
the Koran recognises private property, and that it has existed among
the Arabs from time immemorial.[231] There are other nations where you
may meet with examples of land held in common, but where, nevertheless,
it must be acknowledged that private property greatly preponderates.
In Spain, for instance, we are told that “in certain villages the land
is divided anew each year amongst the inhabitants.”[232] In how many
villages? Two ardent inquirers, whose only desire was to find proofs of
this community in land, M. Oliveira Martins and M. de Azcarate, found
it in only four villages in the whole Iberian peninsula.[233] Perhaps
you will think that these are vestiges of an earlier state of things
that may once have been general. Not at all. It has been proved that in
these four villages the system of common ownership did not appear until
the twelfth or thirteenth century, A.D.; and the particular
causes which led to its appearance are well known. This kind of
community was, therefore, neither general nor ancient. M. de Laveleye
also mentions a village community in Italy; but it is one which was
only created in 1263. A certain estate of about 5000 acres had till
that date belonged to a private owner; that is, it had been precisely
the opposite of common property. In 1263 the owner, who happened to be
a bishop, gave it to the tenants, on condition that they held it in
common. Can a few isolated facts like this prove that mankind used to
hold land in common in primitive times?
6. M. de Laveleye’s theory would be incomplete and insecure if he
did not manage to bring in the Greeks and Romans. He does little
more than repeat the authorities used by M. de Viollet. Like him, he
believes that the legend of a golden age—of an age, that is, when
man did not till the soil (for this is the distinctive and essential
point in all these legends),—is a proof that nations held land in
common at a period when they did till the soil; he even adds that
“he is forced to arrive at the conclusion that the ancient
poets depicted in the golden age a state of civilisation (sic) of
which the recollection had been handed down to later times.”[234]
Like M. Viollet, he quotes the passages from Virgil, Tibullus and
Trogus Pompeius without looking to see whether these passages
describe a condition of civilisation or one of barbarism. He tells
us what Porphyrus says about the 2000 disciples gathered together by
Pythagoras in his phalanstery. He quotes the sentence from Diodorus
about the Lipari isles; without seeing that it distinctly describes
the institution of private property. Trusting in M. Viollet, he
borrows his pages on the copis and the Spartan συσσίτια; for,
like him, he believes that these common meals, from which Aristotle
tells us that the poorer Spartans were excluded, were “a communistic
institution.”[235]
M. de Laveleye also believes that the division of land at the founding
of each city implies an earlier stage in which the city cultivated the
land in common. He does not notice that this division, taking place
at the very moment when the city is founded, is not the result of an
earlier state of communism. It is the earliest fact to which we can go
back. So soon as a band of emigrants have made themselves masters of
a territory, they parcel it out in lots with complete and hereditary
ownership. With very rare exceptions, a Greek city did not hold or
cultivate land in common for a single year.
These lots were called κλῆρος in Greek, sortes in Latin, because
they were originally drawn by lot. M. de Laveleye, noticing these two
words, at once concludes that the drawing by lot took place every
year (p. 85). This is a mistake. Out of all the cases where you find
mention of a partition, you will not find one in which it was annual or
periodical. In every case the division referred to takes place once and
for all, in perpetuity.[236] Each portion is henceforward hereditary
in the family to which it has fallen by lot; and this is the reason
why κλῆρος had the meaning of inheritance and sors signified
patrimony.
The prohibition against selling the land, i.e., against
separating it from the family in order to transfer it to another family
or even to bestow it on the State, appears to M. de Laveleye a proof
that the land belonged to the State (p. 166). It is merely a proof that
according to the ideas of the ancients it ought always to belong to the
same family. M. de Laveleye reproaches me with having, in the Cité
Antique, attributed this prohibition of sale “to the influence of
ancient religion.” The phrase gives an incorrect idea of my meaning.
What I showed was that family property was closely bound up with family
religion. Sale outside the family was not permitted because ancient
law and ancient belief connected the land with the family. The land
belonged to the family, not to the individual. It was the same, in my
opinion, amongst the ancient Germans and the Slavs; and hence it was
that amongst all these nations ancient law did not permit the sale of
land.
For the same reason bequest was prohibited among the Greeks, Italians,
Germans, and Slavs in the early period of their law. The land must
pass to the son or the nearest relations. For the same reason, again,
the daughter did not inherit; because by her marriage she would have
carried the land out of the family. All these facts, which it is now
impossible not to admit, are unmistakable signs of a condition in which
property belonged to the family. They are all directly contrary to a
condition of communism.
M. de Laveleye also lays great stress upon Sparta; only he omits to
mention that private property was established there from the first
beginning of the city, and that every κλῆρος remained attached to the
same family down to the revolution of Cleomenes, i.e., for eight
centuries.[237] To make up for that, he tells us of certain imaginary
brotherhoods, “which must have played an important part in the social
body;” a statement for which there is no authority. He adds that
Sparta “had a wide extent of common land;” for which also there is
no evidence: and that “this common land was used to provide for the
public meals;” which is directly opposed to the definite evidence we do
possess.
He accumulates quotations, but they are inexact. He refers to Aristotle
(Polit. vii., 10); but all Aristotle says is that men began by
being hunters and shepherds; does that imply that when they became
agriculturists they held the soil in common? He quotes Virgil, who in
the Æneid (xi. 315) says that “the Aurunci tilled the land in common;”
turn to the passage; the expression “in common” is not there; M. de
Laveleye has unconsciously added it himself. Every writer does this
who is under the influence of a fixed idea.[238] Speaking of Rome, he
declares “that he sees a proof of primitive community in the common
meals of the curiæ;” and he does not notice that these repasts
of the curia only took place on certain festivals, and that
they were sacred feasts, as we are expressly told by Dionysius of
Halicarnassus, who witnessed them. “The curiæ,” he says, “with
their priests, perform sacrifices and eat together on feast days.” This
is not an agrarian community; it is a religious communion. Suppose
that a stranger, seeing a number of good Christians communicating in
our churches, declared that he saw in this a proof that the French
held their land in common! A little farther we read: “The law of the
Twelve Tables preserves a trace of common ownership; for in default of
the proximus agnatus the gens is preferred to the other
agnates.” There is nothing resembling this in what we have of the law
of the Twelve Tables; the gens was never preferred to the agnates. Our
author quotes, it is true, the following sentence, which he attributes
to Gaius: in legitimis hereditatibus successio non est: gentiles
familiam habento, which is said to be in Gaius iii., 12; but look
in Gaius for this extraordinary sentence, and you certainly will not
find it. Thus, alike for Greece and for Rome, M. de Laveleye has got
together a number of authorities; but there is not a single quotation
that is exact, or that has the meaning he attributes to it.
7. We now come to the Southern Slavs, i.e., the Bosnians,
Servians, and Bulgarians, who, in their turn, have to furnish arguments
in support of the theory.[239] This chapter of M. de Laveleye’s is the
most interesting in the book, the most curious, and, in my opinion,
the most exact. Only I do not see how it bears upon the problem with
which we are occupied. It is very true that the Servian or Bosnian
village often cultivates its land in common. But this village is
composed of a small group of from twenty to sixty persons, who dwell
in four or five houses built within a single enclosure; and the land
belonging to it seldom exceeds sixty acres. Look at it closely, and you
will see that this little village is nothing more than a family. M.
de Laveleye recognises this (p. 204). The brothers as a rule keeping
together and the family continuing to form one undivided body, the
property remains united like the family. The land is cultivated in
common and the produce is consumed in common, under the direction
of the head of the family. This is described by M. de Laveleye with
zest and ability; but it is not community in land; it is the common
ownership of the family. We have seen it amongst the ancient Greeks;
in the most ancient Roman law; amongst the Germans; and now we find
it amongst the Servians. The family forms a small village; it keeps
to itself on its own land; and this land is a common possession which
has belonged to it from time immemorial. It must be added that all the
characteristics which accompany family ownership amongst the Greeks and
Germans are to be found here. The custom of bequest does not exist,
nor does that of gift or sale. All the members of a family are common
owners of the soil, and consequently they alone are the heirs. Anyone
leaving the family loses his rights over the land; anyone entering it
by adoption has the same rights as those who were born into it. Except
that the chief is no longer the eldest member or the son of the eldest,
but the one whom the rest elect—a change which naturally came about in
the course of time—this family resembles in every other respect the
ancient Greek family. But that the soil belongs to the nation or the
tribe there is not the slightest evidence.
8. M. de Laveleye now comes to the allmenden of Switzerland.
He tells us “that never was there a more radical democracy than that
which was to be found in primitive Switzerland,” and he describes the
landgemeinde, “which goes back to the earliest times” (pages
270 et seq). “The Allmend,” he says again, “presents the
ancient type of true justice, which ought to serve as the basis for the
society of the future” (p. 282).
I should like to learn, however, whether these allmenden really
do come down from remote times. Our author tells us so, but without
bringing forward any kind of proof. He declares “that they go back to
the patriarchal period” (p. 291), “that they have lasted for thousands
of years” (p. 281). It is easy to say this; but on what evidence does
it rest? Private property exists in Switzerland, and our author cannot
point to any epoch in which it did not exist. If we examine the law of
the Burgundians and of the Alamanni, by which the country was first
governed, it is private property we find, not common ownership. If we
examine the charters down to the 12th century, we still find private
property. The allmenden of to-day certainly date back some six
or seven centuries. Can they be traced farther back than that?
And what exactly are these allmenden? Do we see in them a system
of non-division of land, a system, that is, under which the land, being
considered the common property of the whole people, is not supposed
to belong to anyone individually? By no means. Private property is in
full force in Switzerland, side by side with the allmenden. The
allmenden are only a part of the land of each village and indeed
the smallest part, a tenth, or, at most, a fifth. They are usually
forests, mountain pastures, or marshes, and include very little land
capable of cultivation. Private property is accordingly the dominant
fact; common ownership only concerns accessories.
The allmenden are just what is to be found in every country;
they are the village commons. It would be interesting and instructive
if we could discover their origin, just as it is interesting to inquire
into the origin of the commons in France. But village commons do not
in any way prove a general system of common ownership; and no one has
yet been able to prove that they are the outcome of such a system. We
know that when the Romans founded a colony, they instituted private
property from the very first; but at the same time they reserved a
portion of the soil, which was to be the common possession of the new
city. And to go farther back, we know that Rome herself, from the time
she first appears in history, had an ager publicus at the same
time as agri privati, and that the Greek cities also had a γῆ
δημοσία. This public land was in no way an indication that the people
lived a single day without individual estates. The allmenden of
Switzerland are commons of the same character as we find everywhere
else. Each village has its own; and they are the property of the
village, which sometimes sells them, lets them to the highest bidder,
or sells the wood upon them, to defray the expenses of its school or
church. Frequently the commons are left for the inhabitants to use
as they like; and they get wood from them, graze their cattle there,
or cultivate small portions. But it is important to notice that only
those who own land in the village have any rights of enjoyment over
the allmend. I refer chiefly to the condition of things before
the last forty years; for only quite recently have such rights been
extended to mere residents and the inhabitants generally. In essential
characteristics the allmend is not common property; it does not
belong to all; it is held in common by people who are already owners
of land. It is an appendage of private property.
M. de Laveleye has written some beautiful passages on the usefulness
of these commons, on the mistake which has been made in France in
their general alienation, and on the happy results produced by them in
Switzerland, both in almost entirely preventing the growth of absolute
destitution and in attaching the poorest peasant to his native soil.
These considerations are just, profound, and inspired by generous
feeling, although but little applicable to modern society. But we are
now considering them in relation to the supposed common ownership of
land; with that the allmenden have nothing to do, and they prove
nothing as to its earlier existence.
9. M. de Laveleye finally refers to the Scotch townships as a proof
of primitive community.[240] In the more distant parts of Scotland,
especially in certain islands lying to the north-west, we find groups
of people who hold the land of a village in common and divide it
amongst themselves in separate lots every year. Is this a system of
land communism, or, as it is called, collective ownership? At the first
glance one would think so. But if you are not satisfied with a first
glance and look further, you will observe that the village belongs to
a single person, the landlord. The peasants are nothing more than the
cultivators. M. de Laveleye cannot help recognising this: “The land
of the village,” he says, “is let to them by the owner.” Again: “The
land does not belong to them; it is the property of a landlord to whom
they pay rent for it.” The cultivators act together as an association
“with the consent of the landlord;” and there are villages in which the
landlord does not allow this collective system of occupation. “They
have a head who is generally appointed by the landlord.” The rent
is paid collectively. We have a description of the township
in a work published recently. The house of the lord, the domus
dominica of our charters, stands in the centre of the village, by
the side of the church.[241] It is built of stone; and around it, at a
little distance, stand the dwellings of the “villeins,” built of mud
and thatched with straw. The villeins owe their lord rent and certain
personal services.
We see from this that the Scotch or English township is not a community
which owns its own land; it is the property of an individual owner,
and the only thing about it which is collective is the cultivation.
The township is really a private estate; and the group of peasants
who till it in common are the tenants. Ownership and tenancy are two
distinct things, which must not be confused. To be owners in common is
very different from being tenants in common under a landlord. We find
in France also, throughout the Middle Ages, instances of tenancies in
common; and I know that there are writers who are quick to identify
them with ownership in common.[242] But this is a mistake which no
one can make who has any accuracy of thought; for it is quite evident
that whilst the land was cultivated by a common group of peasants, it
belonged to a lord who stood above them. The Scotch township has no
connection whatever with an ancient system of community in land.
M. de Laveleye puts forward an hypothesis; he supposes that there
was an earlier period in which the township belonged to the peasants
themselves, and the lord, whom we find in later times, did not exist.
But this is a mere hypothesis unsupported by a single document or a
single fact. He goes further and maintains that this system of village
communities was in force throughout the whole of England in the Saxon
period. But there is no evidence for this in the Anglo-Saxon laws; they
give not the slightest indication of it. The tuncipesmot is
not community in land; nor is the folcland. We must never lose
sight of the fact that history is based upon documents, and not upon
hypotheses or flights of the imagination. When M. de Laveleye says
that “the English manor has destroyed the old village community,” he
makes an entirely hypothetical generalisation. To imagine the manorial
lord of the Middle Ages as a warrior who has forcibly set himself over
a community of free men, is to show that one knows nothing of the
documents from the fifth to the tenth centuries, and that one has an
altogether childish idea of the origin of feudalism.
To come back to the comparative method. I believe that it is infinitely
fruitful; but only on condition that the facts which are compared
have a real resemblance to one another, and that things which are
widely different are not confused. When you bring together the Scotch
township which is nothing more than an association of tenants, the
Russian mir which seems to have long been only an association
of serfs, the Servian village which, on the other hand, is a household
community, and the allmend or commons which are a consequence
and accompaniment of private property, you confuse things which are
absolutely different, and which, moreover, are very far removed from
the system of community in land that you are anxious to prove.
It is needful to come to an understanding as to what the “comparative
method” really is. I have observed that, during the last fifteen
years or so, there has been a strange misapprehension on this point.
Some writers maintain that to compare any facts, no matter what, is
to apply the comparative method. They search all over the world for
peculiar usages; they cite the legend of the golden age amongst the
ancients as if it were an historical fact; they seize upon a trifling
circumstance which occurred in the Lipari Isles as if it related to
the entire Greek world; they seize upon some custom, such as public
repasts or the festivals of the curia; thence they pass to the Russian
mir and talk of it as if they knew all about it; then they
describe a township or an allmend; and, in short, whenever they
find an instance of anything that is done in common, at once they
suppose that they have discovered community in land. They pretend they
have discovered the most widespread institutions of the human race
by the help of some few instances that they have sought for far and
wide, and that they do not take the trouble to observe accurately.
And, what is a more serious matter, they omit and leave out of their
consideration facts which are constant, normal, well-authenticated,
which are engraven in the laws of all peoples, and which have made up
their historical life. They give us a few isolated facts and turn our
thoughts away from permanent institutions. This is not the comparative
method.
If you wished to employ the comparative method it would first of all
be needful to study each nation in itself, to study it throughout its
history, and above all in its law. Should you wish to know if the
ancient Greek cities held their land in common, you must study Greek
law. For the Romans, you must go over the whole history of Rome; for
the Germans, you must take German law. M. Viollet and M. de Laveleye
make frequent references to ancient India; why do they not mention
that in all the ancient Hindoo law that has come down to us the rights
of private property are sanctioned, although, of course, the holding
of property in common by co-heirs is also recognised? Why has no one
quoted the old maxim: “The land belongs to the man who first clears
it, as the deer belongs to the man who first wounds it”? They prefer
to quote certain customs, whose importance they enormously exaggerate,
rather than present to us the rules which were constant and normal.
The comparative method does not consist in discovering amongst fifteen
different nations fifteen little facts, which, if interpreted in a
certain manner, unite in the construction of a system; it consists
in studying a number of nations in regard to their law, their ideas,
all the circumstances of their social life, and in discovering what
they have in common and wherein they differ. I greatly fear that this
comparative method, when it shall be seriously applied, will give very
different results than those that MM. Viollet and de Laveleye believe
they have obtained from the comparative method as they understand it.
On community of land amongst the Gauls.
It would be indeed surprising had the supporters of this theory not
applied it to the ancient Gauls. So little is known about them, that it
is very tempting and not very difficult to introduce community in land
into their history.
One single fact, however, ought to stand in the way; it is that
Cæsar, whose book is the only authority which has historical value,
nowhere tells us that land was common amongst the Gauls. His silence
on this point is not a thing which can be passed over. It is, indeed,
in the eyes of every one accustomed to historical research, a very
significant fact. It is true that Cæsar does not expressly state that
private property was the custom amongst the Gauls. For a writer who
is only speaking in passing of Gallic institutions, to omit to call
attention to a law of property which was in conformity with what he was
accustomed to, is not the same thing as to omit to mention a communism
which would be the opposite of what he was accustomed to, and which
would strike him by its very strangeness. It must be noticed that
Cæsar is not describing the entire social condition of the Gauls; he
contents himself with mentioning those customs which have struck him
as being very different from those he saw in Italy. We have only to
read the ten paragraphs which he devotes to this subject, to recognise
this. After describing in three paragraphs what was peculiar in their
political organisation, and in three more what was peculiar in their
religion, he passes on to what was peculiar in their private life,
and he begins as follows—“As to the institutions of private life,
the following are those wherein they differ from other nations.” By
“other nations” Cæsar clearly means the nations that he knew that is,
primarily, the Italians and Greeks. This opening sentence makes it
plain that Cæsar intended only to tell us of characteristics which
were peculiar to the Gauls. He is going to mention differences, not
resemblances. If private property is the custom there as it is in Rome,
it will not be necessary to say so; but if it is not the custom, he
will say so. His absolute silence on this point is a proof that the
Gauls did not sensibly differ from the Italians in the matter; his
silence implies that they were not ignorant of private property. We
must remember that the entire absence of private property would have
appeared so strange to a Roman that it could not have escaped Cæsar’s
notice. He observed it in Germany where he passed only eighteen days;
he would certainly have discovered it in Gaul where he passed eight
summers. If he does not mention community in land, it is obviously
because it did not exist.
But we have evidence even more convincing. Going on to speak of the
Germans, he remarks that he will explain “in what they differ from the
Gauls, quo differant hae nationes inter sese” (vi., 11); and
further on: “The Germans differ much from this manner of life of the
Gauls, Germani multum ab hac consuetudine differunt.” He then
draws the following contrast between the two nations: 1, the Germans
have no Druids; 2, the Germans have not the same gods as the Gauls; 3,
and lastly, the Germans have not private property. Is not this remark
as to the difference between the two nations almost the same thing as
if Cæsar had said that the Gauls recognised private property and held
their land in individual ownership?
This is not all. Cæsar uses an expression in which he indirectly and
almost unconsciously bears witness to the existence of property in land
amongst the Gauls. In Book VI., Chapter 13, he says that the Druids
act as judges in almost all suits, criminal as well as civil.[243]
He then gives a list of the disputes brought before them, and amongst
criminal offences he instances murder; amongst civil suits he mentions
“those concerning inheritance or boundaries,” si de hereditate, si
de finibus controversia est. If there were in Gaul suits concerning
inheritance or boundaries, it must have meant that the Gauls had a
system of inheritance and made use of boundaries; i.e., that
land was private and hereditary property. Cæsar says elsewhere that the
Germans have no fines; he says here that the Gauls have them.
We cannot say whether the institution of private property in Gaul was
exactly similar to that of private property in Rome; whether it had the
same legal guarantees; whether its boundaries had the same inviolable
character. We do not even know if property still belonged to the
family or was already in the hands of individual owners. Cæsar only
tells us one thing, and that is, that it existed; for “inheritance and
boundaries” are unmistakable signs of private ownership, and as clearly
disprove a system of corporate land-holding.[244]
This is the conclusion to which we are brought by a simple and unbiased
perusal of Cæsar’s account. But preconceptions have great force; and
if a writer starts with the idea that community in land was once
universal, the result will be that, in the face of all evidence, and
yet in perfect good faith, he will think he finds it amongst the Gauls.
One of the first scholars of the day, M. d’Arbois de Jubainville, whose
works on the Middle Ages and on Irish literature have been so highly
appreciated, thinks that the Gauls of the time of Cæsar were not far
enough advanced in civilisation to hold private property; and setting
out with this idea, the offspring of imagination, he supposes that
he can see evidence of undivided tenure. The fact that Cæsar never
mentions this troubles him very little. That Cæsar does mention, as
a point of difference between the Germans and Gauls, that the former
do not hold private property, he omits to notice. And lastly, when
Cæsar refers in so many words to inheritance and boundaries amongst
the Gauls, he disposes of this somewhat embarrassing statement by
interpreting it in a most unexpected fashion.
In his opinion, when Cæsar mentions suits concerning inheritance, de
hereditate, it is impossible that the inheritances of private
persons should be in question, as the custom of inheritance did not
exist. Then what was the inheritance referred to by Cæsar? According
to M. de Jubainville, he was speaking of succession to the crown.
Sovereignty existed; the sons of kings wished to succeed their fathers;
and if a dispute arose, the Druids acted as judges. M. de Jubainville
has omitted to notice that Cæsar gives at least ten instances of sons
who wished to be kings like their fathers; and that in not one of
these instances was the dispute carried before the Druids. It is a
grave error to suppose that the Druids were accustomed to meddle in
affairs of State; we have not a single example of their doing so. And
yet M. de Jubainville maintains that in Cæsar de hereditate
means the succession to the throne; and for this he gives the following
reason,—that in another book, speaking of the Egyptians, Cæsar uses
the expression hereditas regni.[245] The argument is a strange
one. I reply that if Cæsar elsewhere wrote hereditas regni, it
was because the word hereditas could not, when used alone, bear
the meaning of the inheritance of sovereignty. It is quite certain that
if Cæsar had meant to say that the Gauls brought before the Druids
their disputes as to succession to the crown, he would have said de
hereditate regnum.
With regard to the expression, de finibus, M. de Jubainville
will have it mean “frontiers between nations.” In this he is doubly
wrong, both historically and philologically. To begin with the
historical error, Cæsar tells us of numerous quarrels amongst Gallic
tribes; and these quarrels are never carried before the Druids. Are
we to think that Cæsar said that the Druids settled disputes about
frontiers, when he knew perfectly well that Druids did not decide
them? It is absolutely incorrect to say that the Druids had the right
of judging between tribes.[246] Moreover, when Cæsar enumerates the
principal matters which had to be tried, he mentions murder as well as
inheritance and boundaries; and it is impossible to doubt that he is
thinking of the murder of a single person, the inheritance of a single
owner, the boundaries of a single estate.
Philologically, M. de Jubainville maintains that the word fines
may be used for the boundaries of a nation as well as for those of
an estate. No doubt. The word is even used in a philosophical sense,
and Cicero wrote a treatise, De finibus bonorum et malorum. In
every language there are words of wide application; but the student
is not misled by this. In philosophy he understands fines in a
philosophical sense. If a general at the head of an army is crossing
the territory of several nations, he understands fines in the
sense of frontiers. If it is a question of private law, he will not
doubt that fines is connected with individual rights; that it
means the boundaries of an estate or a field. Now the passage in which
Cæsar speaks of “suits concerning inheritance and boundaries” is one
which deals entirely with law and justice.
M. de Jubainville has taken the trouble to count the number of times
that fines occurs in the De Bello Gallico as applied to
national or tribal frontiers, and finds they are seventy-seven. This is
one of those arguments based on statistics which impress most people by
an appearance of matter-of-fact appropriateness. But look at it more
closely. Is the De Bello Gallico a book of private law? It is
a history of military campaigns, and of negotiations between nations;
and it is very natural that the author should frequently speak of the
frontiers or the territory of these nations. If he had written a work
on law, of which he was quite capable, he would have spoken throughout
of the boundaries of private estates. Ought one to be surprised at
this? Read Thiers’ thirty volumes; make the same calculation that M.
de Jubainville did for the De Bello Gallico; and, if you follow
the same method of reasoning, you will come to the conclusion that the
French are unacquainted with boundaries to private property.
What is more important to remark is, that in the whole work, in the
midst of the history of wars, there occur only seven paragraphs on
the customs of the Gauls and their institutions in times of peace
(VI., 11, 13, 15, 18, 19, 21, 22). Now, in these seven chapters you
will find the word fines used three times in the unmistakable
sense of boundaries of fields.[247] And so we see that, when Cæsar is
speaking of wars, he uses fines in the sense of the frontiers of
a country, and, when he is speaking of law, he uses it in the sense of
the boundaries of private property. And, if we are partial to figures,
we may notice that while M. de Jubainville has counted up seventy-seven
fines in three hundred and forty chapters, I have counted three
in seven chapters. The proportion is well kept.
But instead of making this calculation it would have been better
to have noticed something which is of far more importance; in
every instance where the word signifies a frontier, its meaning is
unmistakably indicated by the addition of the name of the people
in question. Thus Cæsar says, fines Helvetiorum, fines
Sequanorum, fines Santonum, fines Æduorum,
fines Lingonum, fines Ambianorum, and so on without
exception.[248] Take the seventy-seven examples collected by M. de
Jubainville, and you will see that the word fines, when it
means frontiers, is always followed by the word “people,” or by
the name of a people. If Cæsar had wished to speak of trials about
national boundaries, he would have said controversiæ de finibus
populorum. If he did not so express himself, it was because he was
speaking of boundaries in the most restricted sense of the word.
M. de Jubainville might have found this very same phrase, which he has
twisted so strangely, si de finibus controversia est, in Cicero.
We have it there word for word; si de finibus controversia est
in Chapter X. of the Topics. Let us see whether in this case
it can apply to the frontiers of a people. Cicero, giving an example
of a definition, writes: “When you say si de finibus controversia
est, the boundaries of private estates are clearly meant.”[249]
And so the passage from Cæsar cannot be explained away as M. de
Jubainville would wish. He cannot get rid of the fact that Cæsar
records in so many words that inheritance and boundaries were to be
found amongst the Gauls; the very opposite, that is, of community in
land. He gets together from other sources a variety of arguments which
appear to him to show that the Gauls held their land in common. They
are as follows: 1, Polybius says (II. 17) that the Gauls of Italy did
not cultivate the land; 2, in Cæsar’s time the Helvetii wished to leave
their country in order to settle in a more fruitful one; 3, the Ædui
admitted into their country ten thousand Boii and gave them land; 4,
there was in Gallic law a custom according to which a husband and wife
threw into a common stock an equal portion of the possessions of each,
and allowed the income arising from this property to accumulate, so
that the whole, principal and interest, might belong to the survivor.
These four circumstances are supposed to prove that private property in
land did not exist.[250]
Not one of the four appears to me to bear with it this consequence.
Examine them one by one. I. The passage from Polybius refers, not to
the Gauls of his own time, but to the Gauls who invaded Italy five
centuries before, and who drove out the Etruscans from the district
of the Po. The historian says that these invaders, being inclined to
pursue their conquests, did not at first settle down and cultivate the
soil, but lived on the produce of their herds. His information bears
upon the Gauls at one particular moment in their history, at the time
when they were planning an attack upon central Italy. It proves nothing
at all about the Gauls in general, and certainly nothing about the
Gauls of the time of Cæsar.
II. That the Helvetii wished to emigrate does not imply that they
lived under a system of community in land. It merely implies that they
preferred the soft climate and fertile plains of the south-west of Gaul
to their own rugged and mountainous country. Is it an unknown thing
for peasant proprietors to emigrate for the sake of seeking a more
productive soil elsewhere?
III. Because the Ædui invited ten thousand Boii to settle in their
country, does that prove that private property was unknown to them?
Not at all. The civitas Æduorum, which covered a considerable
area and included five of our departments, might very probably have
had so large an extent of public domain, or been able to find enough
unoccupied land, to admit ten thousand new cultivators. Such a
circumstance, following, as it does, immediately after the ravages of
Ariovistus, can easily be explained, and is not the slightest evidence
of communism in land.
IV. As to the custom by which a husband and wife contributed equal
shares to a common stock and allowed the income arising from it to
accumulate, I cannot understand in what way this proves that there was
no landed property. M. de Jubainville ingeniously explains that what
was contributed could not have consisted of land “because its produce
cannot be hoarded,” and that it must have consisted of herds of cattle,
because cattle can much more easily be set aside for a particular
object. In his long argument there is only one thing that he overlooks,
and this is that it is possible to sell the crops and set aside
the produce of the sale. Moreover, he gives an incorrect rendering
of Cæsar, VI. 19: hujus omnia pecuniæ fructus servantur.
Pecunia, in legal phraseology, is used not only of money, of not
only personal property, but also of property of every kind, including
land;[251] and fructus does not simply mean produce in the
literal sense of the word, but revenues of every description. Cæsar,
then, is speaking of possessions of every sort, of which the income may
be set aside. These possessions may be an estate under cultivation,
or a herd of cattle, or a stock in trade, or a sum of money placed
out at interest (for this was not unknown to the Gauls); the income
might be the produce of the sale of the crops, or the increase of the
herd, or the profits of trade, or the interest on the loan. Whichever
it may have been, Cæsar did not intend to imply that the Gauls were
unacquainted with landed property.
I am anxious not to pass over a single argument brought forward by this
learned and able writer. He observes that the names of private domains,
such as we find them in the Roman and Merovingian periods, are all
derived from Roman proper names. This is quite true, and I had myself
made the same observation in an earlier essay; but what I had carefully
abstained from saying, and what is maintained by M. de Jubainville,
is that these Latin names of the Roman period prove the non-existence
of domains in the Gallic period. The most they could prove is that,
after the conquest, the names of domains were latinised as well as the
names of individuals. Just as Gallic landowners adopted Roman names
for themselves, they bestowed the same names on their estates; and
consequently domains were called Pauliacus, Floriacus, Latiniacus,
Avitacus, Victoriacus, etc. To conclude from this that there were no
private estates before the conquest would indeed be a rash argument.
M. de Jubainville also alleges that Cæsar does not make use of the
terms villæ and fundus in speaking of the Gauls; and he
concludes from this that neither country estates, fundi, nor
farms, villæ, were to be found in Gaul. “Before the conquest
there were neither fundi nor villæ, and the land was in
common.”[252] This is another surprising statement. M. de Jubainville
should not have overlooked the fact that even if these two words do
not occur in Cæsar, we find terms which are precisely synonymous.
The Romans had more than one word to designate a country estate,
fundus, or a farm, villa. Instead of fundus they
sometimes said ager; and ager always bears this sense
in Cato, Varro, and Columella, and frequently in Cicero and Pliny.
Instead of villa they said ædificium. When Varro or
Columella are speaking of the buildings standing in the midst of an
estate, they use ædificium as often as villa. Turn to
the Digest (Bk. L. Section XVI.) and compare the three
fragments 27, 60, and 211; and you will recognise that the Romans were
in the habit of calling a domain ager and the buildings on it
ædificium. Now Cæsar, in speaking of the Gauls, often uses the
word agri and still more often ædificia. Here are the
domains and the villæ which M. de Jubainville was looking for.
These ædificia were farms, not huts. They contained as a rule
a somewhat numerous rural population; for Cæsar notes in one instance
as something exceptional “that he found in the ædificia of the
Bellovaci only a small number of men, as almost all had set out for the
war” (viii. 7). They also included barns for the storing of crops; for
the historian mentions “that the Tencteri, having invaded the country
of the Menapii, supported themselves for several months on the corn
that they found in the ædificia” (iv. 4). The Roman general was
well aware that if he wished to find forage for his cavalry he must
look for it in these farms, pabulum ex ædificiis petere (vii. 4,
and viii. 10). What Cæsar says about the ædificium of Ambiorix
shows that it was a large enough building to lodge a numerous body
of followers. And so the words ager and ædificium take
the place in Cæsar of the words fundus and villa, and
disprove the assertion that “the Gauls had neither domains nor farms
before the conquest.”
M. de Jubainville compares the whole Gallic territory with the ager
publicus of Rome. I do not know whether the learned medievalist has
a very clear conception of what the ager publicus really was.
The subject is a very difficult one, and requires for its study a good
deal of time, much minute research and great familiarity with Roman
habits and customs. I do not wish to dwell on this point; and will
content myself with saying that the ager publicus was not common
land, but property of the State existing side by side with private
property. To suppose that in Gaul the State was the master of all the
soil and distributed it annually amongst the citizens, is to suppose
something absolutely opposed to Roman habits and to the usages of the
ager publicus. Moreover, it is impossible to find a single line
in Cæsar which authorises such a supposition.[253]
To sum up: the attempt made by this ingenious scholar to discover
community in land amongst the Gauls is supported by no original
authorities. When we come to verify his quotations and test his
arguments, we see that not one of his quotations bears the sense he
attributes to it, and that not one of his facts fits in with a theory
of common ownership in land. It is wisest to keep strictly to what
Cæsar tells us.
Are we to conclude from all that has gone before that nowhere and at no
time was land held in common? By no means. To commit ourselves to so
absolute a negative would be to go beyond the purpose of this work. The
only conclusion to which we are brought by this prolonged examination
of authorities is that community in land has not yet been historically
proved. Here are scholars who have maintained that they could prove
from original authorities that nations originally cultivated the soil
in common; but on examining these authorities we find that they are all
either incorrect, or misinterpreted, or beside the subject. M. Viollet
has not brought forward a single piece of evidence which proves that
the Greek cities ever practised agrarian communism. M. de Jubainville
has not brought forward one which proves communism in Gaul. Maurer
and Lamprecht have not produced one which shows that the mark was
common land. As to the comparative method, which has been somewhat
ostentatiously called into service, we are presented under its name
with a strangely assorted mass of isolated facts, gathered from every
quarter, and often not understood; every fact not in harmony with the
theory has been left on one side. In the prosecution of what professed
to be an inquiry into the domestic life of whole nations, the one thing
essential has been omitted, that is, their law. In short, an imposing
structure has been erected out of a series of misunderstandings.
National communism has been confused with the common ownership of the
family; tenure in common has been confused with ownership in common;
agrarian communism with village commons.
We do not maintain that it is inadmissible to believe in primitive
communism. What we do maintain is that the attempt to base this theory
on an historical foundation has been an unfortunate one; and we refuse
to accept its garb of false learning.
The theory itself will always be believed in by a certain class
of minds. Among the current ideas which take possession of the
imaginations of men is one they have learnt from Rousseau. It is that
property is contrary to nature and that communism is natural; and this
idea has power even over writers who yield to it without being aware
that they do so.
Minds which are under the influence of this idea will never allow that
property may be a primordial fact, contemporaneous with the earliest
cultivation of the soil, natural to man, produced by an instinctive
recognition of his interests, and closely bound up with the primitive
constitution of the family. They will always prefer to assume that
there must first have been a period of communism. This will be with
them an article of faith which nothing can shake; and they will always
be able to find authorities which can be made to support it. There
will, however, always be a few, endowed with a keener critical and
historical sense, who will continue to doubt what has yet to be proved.
However that may be, the question, in spite of so many attempts, still
remains unanswered. If any one wishes to give a scientific proof of
primitive communism, these are the conditions on which he may perhaps
succeed:
1. He must find definite and exact authorities; which he must
translate, not approximately, but with absolute correctness, according
to the literal signification of the words.
2. He must abstain from adducing facts which are comparatively modern
in support of an institution which he ascribes to the beginning of
things, as has been done in the case of the German mark, the island of
Java and the Russian mir.
3. He must not content himself with collecting a few isolated facts
which may be exceptional; but he must study phenomena which are
general, normal, and far-spreading; of these he will find the evidence
principally in legal records, and to a small extent in early religious
customs.
4. He will be careful not to confuse agrarian communism with family
ownership, which may in time become village ownership without ceasing
to be a real proprietorship.
5. He will not mistake undivided tenancies on a domain belonging to
a proprietor for community in land. The fact that villani, who
were not the owners of any land at all, often cultivated the soil in
common for a lord, or annually divided it amongst themselves, has no
connection with agrarian communism, and is in fact directly opposed to
it.
6. He will be careful not to confuse the question by introducing
village commons, unless he has first of all succeeded in proving that
such commons are derived from a primitive communism. This has never yet
been proved, and all that has hitherto been ascertained about commons
is that they are an appendage of private property.
On these conditions alone can the work be done scientifically; short of
this the only result will be a confused picture of the fancy. If any
one, after taking all these precautions against gross error, discovers
a body of facts and evidence in support of a theory of communism, he
will have settled the question historically. Till then, do not invoke
history in its favour. Present your theory as an abstract idea which
may be valuable, but with which history has nothing to do. Let us not
have sham learning. In saying this I have at heart the interests of
historical science. There is danger lest, from love of a theory, a
whole series of errors should be forcibly thrust into history. What
I fear is not the theory itself; it will not affect the progress of
human events; but it is the method employed to secure its acceptance.
I distrust this pretended application of learning, this practice of
forcing documents to say the very opposite of what they really say,
this superficial habit of talking about all the nations of the world
without having studied a single one. Never have “original authorities”
been so much lauded as to-day; never have they been used with so much
levity.
THE END.
Cowan & Co., Limited, Printers, Perth.