PROF. ORSON PRATT.
Ladies and Gentlemen:
We have assembled ourselves in this vast congregation in the third
session of our discussion, to take into consideration the Divinity of
a very important institution of the Bible. The question, as you have
already heard, is "Does the Bible Sanction Polygamy?" Many arguments
have already been adduced, on the side of the affirmative, and also
on the side of the negative. This afternoon one hour is allotted to
me in the discussion, to bring forth still further evidences, which
will close the debate, so far as the affirmative is concerned; then to
be followed by the Reverend Dr. Newman, which will finally close the
discussion.
Polygamy is a question, or in other words, is an institution of the
Bible; an institution established, as we have already shown, by Divine
authority; established by law—by command; and hence, of course, must
be sanctioned by the great Divine Law-Giver, whose words are recorded
in the Bible.
Yesterday I was challenged by the Reverend Dr. Newman, to bring forth
any evidence whatever to prove that there were more than two polygamist
families in all Israel during the time of their sojourn in the
wilderness. At least this is what I understood the gentleman to say. I
shall now proceed to bring forth the proof.
The statistics of Israel in the days of Moses show that there were of
males, over twenty years of age, Numbers 1st chapter, 49 verse:
Even all they that were numbered, were six hundred thousand and three
thousand, and five hundred and fifty.
It was admitted, yesterday afternoon, by Dr. Newman, that there were
two and a half millions of Israelites. Now I shall take the position
that the females among the Israelites were far more numerous than the
males; I mean that portion of them that were over twenty years of
age. I assume this for this reason, that from the birth of Moses down
until the time that the Israelites were brought out of Egypt, some
eighty years had elapsed. The destruction of the male children had
commenced before the birth of Moses; how many years before I know not.
The order of King Pharaoh was to destroy every male child. All the
people, subject to this ruler, were commanded to see that they were
destroyed and thrown into the river Nile. How long a period this great
destruction continued is unknown, but if we suppose that one male child
to every two hundred and fifty persons was annually destroyed, it would
amount to the number of ten thousand yearly. This would soon begin to
tell in the difference between the numbers of males and females. Ten
thousand each year would only be one male child to each two hundred
and fifty persons. How many would this make from the birth of Moses,
or eighty years? It would amount to 800,000 females above that of the
males. But I do not wish to take advantage in this argument by assuming
too high a number. I will diminish it one half, which will still leave
400,000 more females than males. This would be one male destroyed each
year out of every five hundred persons. The females, then, over twenty
years of age would be 603,550, added to 400,000 surplus women, making
in all 1,003,550 women over twenty years of age. The children, then,
under twenty years of age, to make up the two and a half millions,
would be 892,900, the total population of Israel being laid down at
2,500,000 people.
Now, then, for the number of families constituting this population.
The families having first-born males over one month old, see Numbers
iii chapter and 43rd verse, numbered 22,273. Families having no male
children over one month old we may suppose to have been in the ratio
of one-third of the former class of families, which would make 7,424
additional families. Add these to the 22,273 with first-born males
and we have the sum total of 20,697 as the number of the families in
Israel. Now, in order to favor the monogamists' argument, and give them
all the advantage possible, we will still add to this number to make
it even—303 families more, making thirty thousand families in all.
Now comes another species of calculation founded on this data: Divide
twenty-five hundred thousand persons by 22,273 first-born males, and we
find one first-born male to every 112 persons. What a large family for
a monogamist! But divide 2,500,000 persons by 30,000 and the quotient
gives eighty-three persons in a family. Suppose these families to have
been monogamic, after deducting husband and wife, we have the very
respectable number of eighty-one children to each monogamic wife. If we
assume the numbers of the males and females to have been equal, making
no allowance for the destruction of the male infants, we shall then
have to increase the children under twenty years of age to keep good
the number of two and a half millions. This would still make eighty-one
children to each of the 30,000 monogamic households. Now let us examine
these dates in connection with polygamy. If we suppose the average
number of wives to have been seven, in each household, though there may
have been men who had no wife at all, and there may have been some who
had but one wife; and there may have been others having from one up to
say thirty wives, yet if we average them at seven wives each, we would
then have one husband, seven wives and seventy-five children to make
up the average number of eighty-three in the family, in a polygamic
household. This would give an average of over ten children apiece to
each of the 210,000 polygamic wives. When we deduct the 30,000 husbands
from the 605,550 men over twenty years old we have 573,550 unmarried
men in Israel. If we deduct the 210,000 married women from the total of
1,005,550 over twenty years of age, we have 793,550 left. This would
be enough to supply all the unmarried men with one wife each, leaving
still a balance of 220,000 unmarried females to live old maids or enter
into polygamic households.
The law guaranteeing the rights of the first-born, which has been
referred to in other portions of our discussion, includes those 22,273
first-born male children in Israel, that is, one first born male child
to every 112 persons in Israel; taking the population as represented by
our learned friend, Mr. Newman, at two and a half millions. Thus we see
that there was a law given to regulate the rights of the first-born,
applying to over 22,000 first-born male children in Israel, giving them
a double portion of the goods and inheritances of their fathers.
Having brought forth these statistics, let us for a few moments examine
more closely these results. How can any one assume Israel to have
been monogamic, and be consistent? I presume that my honored friend,
notwithstanding his great desire and earnestness to overthrow the
Divine evidences in favor of polygamy, would not say to this people
that one wife could bring forth eighty-one children. We can depend
upon these proofs—upon these biblical statistics. If he assumes
that the males and females were nearly equal in number, that Israel
was a monogamic people, then let Mr. Newman show how these great and
wonderful households could be produced in Israel, if there were only
two polygamic families in the nation. It would require something more
wonderful than the herb called "mandrake," referred to by Dr. Newman
in his rejoinder to my reply to him in the New York Herald. I think he
will not be able to find, in our day, an herb with such wonderfully
efficacious properties, which will produce such remarkable results.
I have therefore established that Israel was a polygamic nation when
God gave them the laws which I have quoted, laws to govern and regulate
a people among whom were polygamic and monogamic families. The nation
was founded in polygamy in the days of Jacob, and was continued in
polygamy until they became very numerous, very great and very powerful,
while here and there might be found a monogamic family—a man with
one wife. Now if God gave laws to a people having these two forms of
marriage in the wilderness, He would adapt such laws to all. He would
not take up isolated instances here and there of a man having one wife,
but He would adapt His laws to the whole; to both the polygamic and
monogamic forms of marriage throughout all Israel.
But we are informed by the reverend Doctor that the law given for the
regulation of matters in the polygamic form of marriage bears upon the
face of it the condemnation of polygamy. And to justify his assertion
he refers to the laws that have been passed in Paris to regulate the
social evil; and to the excise laws passed in our own country to
regulate intemperance; and claims that these laws for the regulation
of evils are condemnatory of the crimes to which they apply. But when
Parisians pass laws to regulate the social evil they acknowledge
it as a crime. When the inhabitants of this country pass laws to
regulate intemperance, they thereby denounce it as a crime. And when
God gives laws, or even when human legislatures make penal laws, they
denounce as crimes the acts against which these laws are directed,
and attach penalties to them for disobedience. When the law was
given of God against murder, it was denounced as a crime by the very
penalty attached, which was death; and when the law was given against
adultery its enormity was marked by the punishment—the criminal was
to be stoned to death. It was a crime, and was so denounced when the
law was given. God gave laws to regulate these things in Israel; but
because He has regulated many great and abominable crimes by law, has
He no right to regulate that which is good and moral as well as that
which is wicked and immoral? For instance, God introduced the law of
circumcision and gave commands regulating it; shall we, therefore
say, according to the logic of the gentleman, that circumcision was
condemned by the law of God, because it was regulated by the law of
God? That would be his logic, and the natural conclusion according to
his logic. Again, when God introduced the Passover. He gave laws how it
should be conducted. Does that condemn the Passover as being immoral
because regulated by law? But, still closer home, God gave laws to
regulate the monogamic form of marriage. Does that prove that monogamy
is condemned by the law of God, because thus regulated? On, that kind
of logic will never do!
Now, then, we come to that passage in Leviticus, the xviii chapter,
and the 18th verse; the passage that was so often referred to in
the gentleman's reply yesterday afternoon. I was very glad to hear
the gentleman refer to this passage. The law, according to King
James' translation, as we heard yesterday afternoon, reads thus:
"Neither shalt thou take a wife to her sister to vex her, to uncover
her nakedness, besides the other in her life-time." That was the
law according to King James' translation. My friend, together with
Doctors Dwight and Edwards, and several other celebrated commentators,
disagree with that interpretation; and somebody, I know not whom, some
unauthorized person, has inserted in the margin another interpretation:
recollect, in the margin and not in the text. It is argued that this
interpretation in the margin must be correct, while King James'
translators must have been mistaken. Now, recollect that the great
commentators who have thus altered King James' translation were
monogamists. So were the translators of the Bible; they, too, were
monogamists. But with regard to the true translation of this passage,
it has been argued by my learned friend that the Hebrew—the original
Hebrew—signifies something a little different from that which is
contained in King James' translation. These are his words, as will be
found in his sermon preached at Washington, upon this same subject:
"But in verse 38 the law against polygamy is given, 'Neither shalt
thou take a wife to her sister;' or, as the marginal reading is, 'Thou
shalt not take one wife to another.' And this rendering is sustained by
Cookson, by Bishop Jewell and by Drs. Edwards and Dwight," four eminent
monogamists, interested in sustaining monogamy. According to Dr.
Edwards, the words which we translate 'a wife to her sister' are found
in the Hebrew but eight times. Now we have not been favored with these
authorities, we have had no access to them. Here in these mountain
wilds it is very difficult to get books. In each passage they refer to
inanimate objects; that is, in each of the eight places where the words
are found. We have searched for them in the Hebrew and can refer you
to each passage where they occur. And each time they refer to objects
joined together, such as wings, loops, curtains, etc., and signify
coupling together. The gentleman reads the passage "Thou shalt not take
one wife to another," and understands it as involving the likeness of
one thing to another, which is correct. But does the language forbid,
as the margin expresses it, the taking of one wife to another? No; we
have the privilege, according to the rules or articles of debate, which
have been read this afternoon, to apply to the original Hebrew. What
are the Hebrew words—the original—that are used? Veishah el-ahotah
lo tikkah: this, when literally translated and transposed is, "neither
shalt thou take a wife to her sister," veishah being translated by
King James' translators "a wife," el-ahotah being translated "to her
sister;" lo is translated "neither;" while tikkah is translated by
King James' translators "shalt thou take." They have certainly given a
literal translation. Appeal to the Hebrew and you will find the word
ishah occurs hundreds of times in the Bible, and is translated "wife."
The word "ahotah", translated by King James' translators "a sister,"
occurs hundreds of times in the Bible, and is translated "sister." But
are these the only translations—the only renderings? Ishah, when it is
followed by ahot has another rendering. That is when "wife" is followed
by "sister" there is another rendering.
Translators have no right to give a double translation to the same
Hebrew word, in the same phrase; if they translate veishah one, they
are not at liberty to translate the same word in the same phrase over
again and call it wife. This Dr. Edwards, or some other monogamist, has
done, and inserted this false translation in the margin. What object
such translator had in deceiving the public must be best known to
himself: he probably was actuated by a zeal to find some law against
polygamy, and concluded to manufacture the word "wife," and place it
in the margin, without any original Hebrew word to represent it. Ahot,
when standing alone, is rendered sister; when preceded by ishah, is
rendered another; the suffix ah, attached to ahot, is translated "her;"
both together (ahot-ah) are rendered "her sister," that is sister's
sister; when ahot is rendered "another," its suffix ah represents "her"
or more properly the noun sister, for which it stands. The phrase will
then read: Veishah (one) el-ahotah (sister to another) lo (neither)
tikkah (shalt thou take) which, when transposed, reads thus: Neither
shalt thou take one sister to another. This form of translation agrees
with the rendering given to the same Hebrew words or phrase in the
seven other passages of Scripture, referred to by Dr. Newman and Dr.
Edwards. (See Exodus xxvi, 3, 5; Ezekiel i, 9, 11, 23; also iii, 13.)
It will be seen that the latter form of translation gives precisely
the same idea as that given by the English translators in the text. It
also agrees with the twelve preceding verses of the law, prohibiting
intermarriages among blood relations, and forms a part and parcel of
the same code; while the word "wife," inserted in the margin, is not,
and cannot, by any possible rule of interpretation, be extorted from
the original connection with the second form of translation.
Why should King James' literal translation "wife" and "sister" be
set aside for "one to another?" Because they saw a necessity for it.
There is this difference: in all the other seven passages where the
words Veishah el-ahotah occur, there is a noun in the nominative case
preceding them, denoting something to be coupled together. Exodus 26th
chapter, 3rd verse contains ishah el-ahotah twice, signifying to couple
together the curtains one to another, the same words being used that
are used in this text. Go to the fifth verse of the same chapter, and
there we have the loops of the curtains joined together one to another,
the noun in the nominative case being expressed. Next go to Ezekiel,
1st chapter, 9th, 11th and 23rd verses, and these three passages give
the rendering of these same words, coupling the wings of the cherubim
one to another. Then go again to the 3rd chapter of Ezekiel and 13th
verse, and the wings of the living creatures were joined together one
to another. But in the text under consideration no such noun in the
nominative case occurs; and hence the English translators concluded to
give each word its literal translation.
The law was given to prevent quarrels, which are apt to arise among
blood relations. We might look for quarrels on the other side between
women who were not related by blood; but what are the facts in relation
to quarrels between blood relations? Go back to Cain and Abel. Who was
it spilled the blood of Abel? It was a blood relation, his brother.
Who was it that cast Joseph into the pit to perish with hunger, and
afterwards dragged him forth from his den and sold him as a slave to
persons trading through the country? It was blood relations. Who slew
the seventy sons of Gideon upon one stone? It was one of their own
brothers that hired men to do it. Who was it that rebelled against
King David, and caused him with all his wives and household, excepting
ten concubines, to flee out of Jerusalem? It was his blood relation,
his own son Absalom. Who quarrelled in the family of Jacob? Did Bilhah
quarrel with Zilpah? No. Did Leah quarrel with Bilhah or Zilpah?
No such thing is recorded. Did Rachel quarrel with either of the
handmaidens? There is not a word concerning the matter. The little,
petty difficulties occurred between the two sisters, blood relations,
Rachel and Leah. And this law was probably given to prevent such
vexations between blood relations—between sister and sister.
Having effectually proved the marginal reading to be false, I will
now defy not only the learned gentleman, but all the world of Hebrew
scholars to find any word in the original to be translated "wife" if
ishah be first translated "one."
I am informed I have only fifteen minutes. I was not aware I had spoken
a quarter of the time. I shall have to leave this subject and proceed
to another.
The next subject to which I will call your attention is in regard to
the general or unlimited language of the laws given in the various
passages which I have quoted. If a man shall commit rape, if a man
shall entice a maid, if a man shall do this, or that, or the other, is
the language of these passages. Will any person pretend to say that a
married man is not a man? And if a married person is a man, it proves
that the law is applicable to married men, and if so it rests with my
learned friend to prove that it is limited. Moreover, the passage from
the margin in Leviticus was quoted by Dr. Newman as a great fundamental
law by which all the other passages were to be overturned. But it has
failed; and, therefore, the other passages quoted by me, stand good
unless something else can be found by the learned gentleman to support
his forlorn hope.
Perhaps we may hear quoted in the answer to my remarks the passage
that the future king of Israel was not to multiply wives to himself.
That was the law. The word multiply is construed by those opposed to
polygamy to mean that twice one make two, and hence that he was not
to multiply wives, or, in other words, that he was not to take two.
But the command was also given that the future king of Israel was not
to multiply horses anymore than wives. Twice one make two again. Was
the future king of Israel not to have more than one horse? The idea is
ridiculous! The future king of Israel was not to multiply them; not to
have them in multitude, that is, only to take such a number as God saw
proper to give him.
We might next refer you to the uncle of Ruth's dead husband, old Boaz,
who represented himself as not being the nearest kin. There was another
nearer who had the Divine right to take her, and this other happened
to be the brother of Boaz, perhaps a little older. Josephus tells us,
according to the learned gentleman, that this oldest brother was a
married man. Suppose we admit it. Did Boaz not know that his brother
was married when he represented him as the nearest of kin and had the
right before him? And even the brother acknowledges his right, and says
to Boaz: "Redeem thou my right to thyself." He had the right to marry
her. This, then, we arrive at by the assistance of Josephus; and it
proves that married men were required to comply with the law. I have
no further time to remark on this passage. I wish now to examine a
passage that is contained in Matthew, in regard to divorces, and also
in Malachi, on the same subject. Malachi, or the Lord by the mouth
of Malachi, informs the people that the Lord hated putting away. He
gave the reason why a wife should not be put away. Not a word against
polygamy in either passage.
But there is certain reasoning introduced to show that a wife should
not be put away. In the beginning the Lord made one, that is a wife
for Adam, that he might not be alone. Woman was given to man for a
companion, that he might protect her, and for other holy purposes, but
not to be put away for trivial causes; and it was cause of condemnation
in those days for a man to put away his wife. But there is not a word
in Malachi condemnatory of a man marrying more than one wife. Jesus
also gives the law respecting divorces, that they should not put away
their wives for any other cause than that of fornication; and he that
took a wife that was put away would commit adultery. Jesus says, in the
5th chapter, that he that putteth away his wife for any other cause
than fornication causes her to commit adultery. Then the husband is a
guilty accomplice, and if he puts away his wife unjustly he is guilty
of adultery himself, the same as a confederate in murder is himself
a murderer. As an adulterer he has no right to take another wife; he
has not the right to take even one wife. His right is to be stoned
to death; to suffer the penalty of death for his sin of adultery.
Consequently, if he has no right to even life itself, he has no right
to a wife. But the case of such a man, who has become an adulterer
by putting away his wife, and has no right to marry another, has no
application, nor has the argument drawn from it any application, to the
man who keeps his wife and takes another. The law referred to by my
learned opponent, in Leviticus xviii and 18, shows that polygamy was in
existence, but was to be kept within the circle of those who were not
blood relations.
Concerning the phrase "duty of marriage," occurring in the passage,
"If a man take another wife, her food, her raiment and her duty of
marriage shall he not diminish." The condition here referred to is
sometimes more than mere betrothal. It is something showing that the
individual has been not merely previously betrothed, but is actually
in the married state, and the duty of marriage is clearly expressed.
What is the meaning of the original word? It does not mean dwelling nor
refuge, as asserted in the New York Herald by Dr. Newman. Four passages
are quoted by him in which the Hebrew word for dwelling occurs, but the
word translated "duty" of marriage, is entirely a distinct word from
that used in the four passages referred to. Does not the learned Dr.
know the difference between two Hebrew words? Or what was his object
in referring to a word elsewhere in the Scripture that does not even
occur in the text under consideration? In a Hebrew and English Lexicon,
(published by Josiah W. Gibbs, A. M., Prof. of Sacred Liter., in the
Theology School in Yale College,) page 160, it refers to this very
Hebrew word and to the very passage, Ex. xxxi, 10, and translates it
thus:—"cohabitation,"—"duty of marriage." "Duty of marriage" then is
"cohabitation:" thus God commands a man who takes another wife, not to
diminish the duty of cohabitation with the first. Would God command
undiminished "cohabitation" with a woman merely betrothed and not
married?
While I have a few moments left let me refer you to Hosea. I wish all
of you, when you go home, to read the second chapter of Hosea, and
you will find, with regard to Hosea's having divorced his first wife
because of her whoredoms, that no such thing is recorded as stated
by Mr. Newman yesterday. The Lord tells Hosea to go and speak to his
brethren, (not to his son,) to his sisters, (not his daughter,) of
the house of Israel, and tell them what the Lord will do; that he may
not acknowledge them any longer as a wife. Hosea bore the word of the
Lord to Israel, whom his own two wives represented, saying that their
whoredoms, their wickedness and idolatries had kindled the anger of the
Lord against them.
Having discussed the subject so far I leave it now with all candid
persons to judge. Here is the law of God; here is the command of the
Most High, general in its nature, not limited, nor can it be proved to
be so. There is no law against it, but it stands as immovable as the
Rock of Ages, and will stand when all things on the earth and the earth
itself shall pass away.
Respected Umpires, and Ladies and Gentlemen:
I had heard, prior to my coming to your city, that my distinguished
opponent was eminent in mathematics, and certainly his display to-day
confirms that reputation. Unfortunately, however, he is incorrect in
his statements. First, he assumes that the slaying of all the male
children of the Hebrews was continued through eighty years; but he has
failed to produce the proof. To do this was his starting point. He
assumes it; where is the proof, either in the Bible or in Josephus?
And until he can prove that the destruction of the male children went
on for eighty years, I say this argument has no more foundation than
a vision. Then he makes another blunder: the 303,550, the number of
men above twenty years of age, mentioned in this case, were men to go
to war; they were not the total population of the Jewish nation, and
yet my mathematical friend stands up here to-day and declares that the
whole male population above twenty years of age consisted of 303,550,
whereas it is a fact that this number did not include all the males.
Then again the 22,273 first-born do not represent the number of
families in Israel at that time, for many of the first-born were
dead. These are the blunders that the gentleman has made to-day, and
I challenge him to produce the contrary and prove that he is not
guilty of these numerical blunders. Then he denies the assertion made
yesterday that there could not be brought forward more than one or
two instances of polygamy in the history of Israel from the time the
Hebrews left Egypt to the time they entered Canaan. Has he disproved
that? He has attempted to prove it by a mathematical problem, which
problem is based on error: his premises are wrong, therefore his
conclusions are false. Why didn't he turn to King James' translation?
I will help him to one polygamist, that is Caleb. Why didn't he start
with old Caleb and go down and give us name after name and date after
date of the polygamists recorded in the history of the Jews while they
were in the wilderness? Ladies and gentlemen, he had none to give, and
therefore the assertion made yesterday is true, that during the sojourn
of the children of Israel in the wilderness there is but one instance
of polygamy recorded.
Now we come to the law that I laid down yesterday—"Neither shalt thou
take one wife to another." I reaffirm that the translation in the
margin is perfect to a word. He labors to show that God does not mean
what He says. That the phrase "one wife to another," may be equally
rendered one woman to another, or one wife to her sister. The very same
phrase is used in the other seven passages named by Dr. Dwight. For
example, Exodus xxvi, 3, Ezekiel i, 9, etc. He admits the translation
in these passages to be correct. If it is correct in these passages,
why is it not correct in the other? His very admission knocks to pieces
his argument. Why then does he labor to create the impression that the
Hebrew ishau means woman, or wife? What is the object of the travail of
his soul? The word ahoot, he contends, means sister; but sister itself,
is a word which means a specific relation, and a generic relation.
Every woman is sister to every other woman, and I challenge the
gentleman to meet me on paper at any time, in the newspapers of your
city or elsewhere upon the Hebrew of this text. I reaffirm it, reaffirm
it in the hearing of this learned gentleman, reaffirm it in the hearing
of these Hebraists, that as it is said in the margin, is the true
rendering, namely, "neither shalt thou take one wife to another." But
supposing that is incorrect, permit me, before I pass on, to remind you
of this fact, he refers, I think, in his first speech, to the "margin;"
the "margin" was correct then and there, but it is not here. It is a
poor rule that will not work both ways; correct when he wants to quote
from the "margin," but not when I want to do so. He quoted from the
margin, and I followed his illustrious example.
And now, my friends, supposing that the text means just what he says,
namely, "neither shalt thou take a wife unto her sister, to vex her;"
supposing that is the rendering, and he asserts it is, and he is a
Hebraist, I argued and brought the proof yesterday that this law of
Moses is not kept by the Mormons; in other words there are men in
your very midst who have married sisters. Where was the gentleman's
solemn denunciation of the violation of God's law? Why did he not lift
his voice and vindicate the Divine law? But not a solitary word of
disapproval is uttered! Yesterday he pronounced a curse—"cursed is
he that conforms not to the words of this law, to do them." Does not
the curse rest upon him and upon his people? I gave him the liberty to
choose whether this text condemned polygamy, or whether it condemned
a man for marrying two sisters; he must take his choice, the horns of
the dilemma are before him. For the sake of saving polygamy he stands
up here, in the presence of Almighty God and His holy angels, and
before this intelligent congregation he admits that in this church,
and with this people, God's holy law is set at defiance. What respect,
therefore, can we have for the gentleman's argument, drawn from the
teachings of Moses, in support of polygamy?
He refers us to the multiplication of horses. I suppose a king may have
one horse or two, there is no special rule; but there is a special rule
as to the number of wives. Neither shall the king multiply wives. God,
in the beginning, gave the first man one wife, and Christ and Paul
sustain that law as binding upon us. And now, supposing that that is
not accepted as a law, what then? Why there is no limit to the number
of wives, none at all. How many shall a man have? Seven, twenty, fifty,
sixty, a hundred? Why, they somewhere quote a passage that if a man
forsake his wife he shall have a hundred. Well, he ought to go on
forsaking; for if he will forsake a hundred he will have ten thousand;
and if he forsake ten thousand he will have so many more in proportion.
It is his business to go on forsaking. That is in the Professor's book
called the Seer. Such a man would keep the Almighty busy creating women
for him.
I regret very much that I have not time to notice all the points
which have been brought forward. I desired to do so. I plead for more
time; my friends plead for more time; but time was denied us, I am
therefore restricted to an hour. Now, I propose to follow out the
line of argument which I was pursuing yesterday when my time expired,
and I propose to carry out and apply the great law brought forward
yesterday—"Neither shall a man take one wife unto another;" and in
doing this we call your attention to the fact that in the Bible there
are only twenty-five or thirty specially recorded cases of polygamy,
all told, out of thousands and millions of people. I say twenty-five
or thirty specially recorded cases, which polygamists of our day
claim in support of their position. I propose to take up, say half a
dozen of the most prominent ones. I divide the period, before the law
and after the law. I take up Abraham. It is asserted that he was a
polygamist. I deny it. There is no proof that Abraham was guilty of
polygamy. What are the facts? When he was called of the Almighty to be
the founder of a great nation, a promise was given him that he should
have a numerous posterity. At that time he was a monogamist, had but
one wife—the noble Sarah. Six years passed and the promise was not
fulfilled. Then Sarah, desiring to help the Lord to keep His promise,
brought her Egyptian maid Hagar, and offered her as a substitute for
herself to Abraham. Mind you, Abraham did not go after Hagar, but
Sarah produced her as a substitute. Immediately after the act was
performed Sarah discovered her sin and said, "My wrong be upon thee."
"I have committed sin, but I did it for thy sake, and therefore the
wrong that I have committed is upon thee." Then look at the subsequent
facts: by the Divine command this Egyptian girl was sent away from the
abode of Abraham by the mutual consent of the husband and the wife;
by the Divine command, it is said that she was recognized as the wife
of Abraham, but I say you cannot prove it from the Bible; but it is
said that she was promised a numerous posterity. It was also foretold
that Ishmael should be a wild man—"his hand against every man and
every man's hand against him." Did that prediction justify Ishmael
in being a robber and a murderer? No, certainly not; neither did the
other prediction, that Hagar should have a numerous posterity, justify
the action of Abraham in taking her. After she had been sent away by
Divine command, God said unto Abraham—"now walk before me and be thou
perfect."
These are the facts my friends. I know that some will refer you
to Keturah; but this is the fact in regard to her: Abraham lived
thirty-eight years after the death of Sarah; the energy miraculously
given to Abraham's body for the generation of Isaac was continued after
Sarah's death; but to suppose that he took Keturah during Sarah's
lifetime is to do violence to his moral character. But it is said
he sent away the sons of Keturah with presents during his lifetime,
therefore it must have been during the life time of Sarah. He lived
thirty-eight years after the death of Sarah, and he sent these sons
away eight years before his death, and they were from twenty-five to
thirty years old. Then this venerable Patriarch stands forth as a
monogamist and not as a polygamist.
Then we come to the case of Jacob. What are the facts in regard to him?
Brought up in the sanctity of monogamy, after having robbed his brother
of his birth-right, after having lied to his blind old father, he then
steals away and goes to Padan-aram and there falls in love with Rachel;
but in his bridal bed he finds Rachel's sister Leah. He did not enter
polygamy voluntarily but he was imposed upon. As he had taken advantage
of the blindness of his father and thereby imposed upon him, so also
was he imposed upon by Laban in the darkness of the night. But I hold
this to be true that Jacob is nowhere regarded as a saintly man prior
to his conversion at the brook Jabbok. After that he appears to us in a
saintly character. It is a remarkable fact that Jacob lived 147 years
all told, eighty-seven of which he lived before he became a polygamist.
He lived twenty-two years in polygamy, he lived forty years after
he had abandoned polygamy, so that out of 147 years there were only
twenty-two years during which he had any connection with polygamy.
I wish my friend had referred to the case of Moses. In his sermon
on celestial marriage he claims that Moses was a polygamist, and
he declares that the leprosy that was sent upon Miriam was for her
interference with the polygamous marriage of Moses. What are the facts?
There is no record of a second marriage. Zipporah is the only name
given as the wife of Moses. What, then, is the assertion made? Simply
this: It is recorded: and Moses was content to dwell with Jethro. He
gave Moses Zipporah, his daughter. Josephus speaks of Jethro having
two daughters, and distinctly says that he gave Moses one of them. In
Numbers xii and 1st, it is said:
And Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Ethiopian
woman whom he had married: for he had married an Ethiopian woman.
Now it is affirmed that two women are here mentioned, whereas nothing
can be more untrue. Zipporah and the Ethiopian woman are one and
identical; it is one and the same person called by different names. Let
us see: The father of Zipporah was the priest of Midian; and according
to the best authorities Midian and Ethiopia are identical terms, and
apply to that portion of Arabia where Jethro lived. So the appellation
Midian, Ethiopia and Arabia are applied to the Arabian peninsula. See
Appleton's American Encyclopedia, volumes 6, 7 and 11. Then Moses, the
Jewish law-giver, stands forth as a monogamist, having but one wife.
Moses was not a polygamist. Surely the founder of a polygamist nation
and the revealer of a polygamist law, as this gentleman claims, should
have set an example, and should have had a dozen or a hundred wives.
This son of Jochebed; he was a monogamist, and stands forth as being a
reproof to polygamists in all generations.
Now we come to Gideon. And what about this man? An angel appeared to
him, that is true; but if the practice of polygamy by Gideon is a law
to us, then the practice of idolatry by Gideon is also a law to us. If
there is silence in the Bible touching the polygamy of Gideon, there
is also silence in the Bible touching his idolatry, and if one is
sanctioned so also is the other.
I wish my friend had brought up the case of Hannah, the wife of
Elkanah. I can prove to a demonstration that Hannah was the first wife
of Elkanah; but being barren Elkanah takes another wife. But Hannah, in
the anxiety of her heart, pleads to the Almighty, and God honored her
motherhood by answering her prayer. It is asked "Is not this a sanction
of polygamy?" Nay, a sanction of monogamy, because she was the first
wife of Elkanah, and because Elkanah had been guilty of infidelity and
married another wife, was that a reason why Hannah should not have her
rights from High Heaven, why God Almighty should not answer her prayer?
You ask me why did not she pray before. Can you tell me why Isaac did
not pray twenty years sooner for his wife, Rebecca, that she might have
children? I can not tell and you can not tell, all that I assert is
that Hannah was the first wife of Elkanah, and God honored and blessed
the beautiful Samuel.
Now we come to David. Why did not my friend bring up David, the great
warrior, king and poet, the ruler of Israel? He might have mentioned
him, with ten wives all told; he might also have mentioned him as the
adulterer, who committed one of the most premeditated, cold-blooded
murders on record, simply to cover up his crime of adultery. How often
do you hear quoted the words "and I gave thy master's wives into thy
bosom!"? Is this an approval of polygamy? If you will read on you
will find also that God also promises to give his (David's) wives to
another, and that another should lie with them in the sight of the
sun. Surely if one is an approval of polygamy the other is an approval
of rebellion and incest! David lived to be seventy-five years old. He
was twenty-seven years old when he took his first wife Michael, the
daughter of Saul. For the next forty years we find him complicated with
the evils, crimes and sorrows of polygamy; and the old man, seeing its
great sin, thoroughly repented of it and put it away from him, and for
the last eight years of his life endeavored to atone, as best he could,
for his troubled and guilty experience.
And what of Solomon? He is the greatest polygamist—the possessor of
a thousand wives! Had this gentleman told me that Solomon's greatness
was predicted, and therefore his polygamic birth was approved, and his
polygamic marriage also approbated, I can remind him of the fact that
the future greatness of Christ was foretold; but the foretelling of
the future greatness of the Lord Jesus Christ was not an approval of
the betrayal by Judas and the crucifixion by the Jews. Neither was the
mere foretelling of the future greatness of Solomon an approval of the
polygamic character of his birth.
I suppose the gentleman on this occasion would have referred to the
law of bastardy and have said, if my doctrine is true, then Solomon
and others were bastards. I could have wished that he had produced
that point. He did quote and declare in this temple, not long since,
in reference to the law touching bastardy, that a bastard should be
branded with infamy to the tenth generation. But it is plain that
he has misunderstood the law respecting bastards, as contained in
Deuteronomy xxiii and 2nd. It is known from history that the same
signification has not always been attached to this term. We say a
bastard is one born out of wedlock, that is monogamous matrimony. In
Athens, in the days of Pericles, five centuries before Christ, all were
declared bastards by law who were not the children of native Athenians.
And we here assert to-day that the gentleman can not bring forward a
law from the book of Jewish laws to prove that a child born of a Jew
and Jewess, whether married or not, was a bastard. The only child
recognized as a bastard by Jewish law is a child born of a Jew and a
Pagan woman; therefore the objection falls to the ground, and Solomon
and others, who were not to blame for the character of their birth, are
exonerated.
The geometrical progression of evil in this system of polygamy is seen
in the first three kings, Saul, David and Solomon. Saul had a wife and
a concubine—two women; David had ten women, Solomon had a thousand,
and it broke the kingdom asunder. God says it was for that very cause.
He had multiplied his wives to such an extent, that they had not only
led him astray from God into idolatry, but the very costliness of his
harem was a burden upon the people too heavy for them to bear. I said
the other day that polygamy might do for kings and priests and nabobs,
but could not do for poor men; it costs too much and the people are
taxed too much to support the harem.
Ah! you bring forward these few cases of polygamy! Name them if you
please. Lamech the murderer; Jacob, who deceived his blind old father,
and robbed his brother of his birthright; David, who seduced another
man's wife and murdered that man by putting him in front of the
battle, and old Solomon, who turned to be an idolater. These are some
polygamists! Now let me call the roll of honor: There were Adam, Enoch,
Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Moses, Aaron, Joshua and Joseph and Samuel and
all the prophets and apostles. You are accustomed to hear, from this
sacred place, that all the patriarchs and all the kings and all the
prophets were polygamists. I assert to the contrary, and these great
and eminent men whom I have just mentioned, belonging to the roll of
honor, were monogamists.
Yesterday the gentleman gave me three challenges; he challenged me to
show that the New Testament condemned polygamy. I now proceed to do it.
I quote Paul's words, 1st Corinthians, 7th chap., 2nd and 4th verses:
Nevertheless to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife,
and let every woman have her own husband.
The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband; and likewise
also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife.
Marriage is a remedy against fornication, and this is the subject of
the chapter. This is the opinion of Clark, Henry, Whitby, Langley and
others. One great evil prevailed at Corinth—a community of wives,
which the apostle here calls fornication. St. Paul strikes at the very
root of the evil and commands that every man have his own wife and that
every woman have her own husband: that is, let every man have his own
peculiar, proper and appropriate wife, and the wife her own proper,
peculiar and appropriate husband. In this there is mutual appropriation
and exclusiveness of right; and this command of Paul agrees with the
law of Moses in Leviticus xviii, 18: "Neither shalt thou take one wife
unto another," and the two are one statute, clear and unquestionable
for monogamy and against polygamy. The apostle teaches the reciprocal
duties of husband and wife, and the exclusive right of each. In verse
four it is distinctly affirmed that the husband has exclusive power
over the body of his wife, as the wife has exclusive power over the
body of her husband. It is universally admitted that this passage
proves the exclusive right of the husband to the wife, and by parity
it also proves the exclusive right of the wife to the husband. These
relations are mutual, and if the husband can claim a whole wife, the
wife can claim a whole husband. She has just as good a right to a whole
husband as he has a right to a whole wife. First Corinthians, 6th
chapter, 15th, 16th and 17th verses says:
Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? Shall I then
take the members of Christ and make them the members of an harlot? God
forbid.
What! know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body?
for two (saith he) shall be one flesh.
But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.
This passage is brought against the idea, but what are the facts? It
is objected that if one flesh is conclusively expressive of wedlock,
that St. Paul affirms that sexual commerce with a harlot is marriage.
For argument's sake I accept the assertion. The passage in question is:
"What! know ye not that he which is joined to a harlot is one body?"
"For two," says he, "shall be one flesh, but he which is joined to the
Lord is one spirit." Now look at the facts of the position, showing
the true relation of the believer to Christ. It is illustrated under
the figure of marriage. The design of this figure is to show that the
believer becomes one with Christ; and the apostle further explains, in
reproof of the Corinthians mingling with idolaters and adulterers, that
by this mingling they become assimilated and identical. He brings up an
illustration that if a man is married to a harlot, not simply joined,
but cohabit with or married to a harlot, he becomes identical with her;
in other words, one flesh.
There is a passage which declares that "a bishop must be blameless, the
husband of one wife." It is asserted that he must have one wife anyhow
and as many more as he pleases. It is supposed that this very caution
indicates the prevalence of polygamy in that day; but no proof can be
brought to bear that polygamy prevailed extensively at that time; on
the contrary I am prepared to prove that polygamists were not admitted
into the Christian Church, for Paul lays down the positive command:
"Let every man have his own wife and every woman have her own husband;"
so that if you say the former applies to the priest, and the latter,
applies to the layman, what is good for the priest is good for the
layman, and vice versa.
How often is it asserted here that monogamy has come from the Greeks
and Romans. But look at the palpable contradiction in the assertion. It
is asserted that monogamy came from those nations; it is also asserted
that polygamy was universal at the time of Christ and his apostles.
If monogamy came from the Greeks and Romans, then polygamy could not
have been universally prevalent, for it is admitted that at that time
the Romans held universal sway, and wherever they held sway their laws
prevailed, hence the two statements cannot be reconciled.
Now we come to the words of the Savior, Matthew v, 27 and 28; and xix,
8 and 9, and Mark x, and 11 and 12. At that time, when the Savior was
discoursing with the Pharisees, as recorded in Matthew xix, the Jews
were divided as to the interpretation of the law of Moses touching
divorce: "when a man hath taken a wife and married her, and it comes
to pass that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some
uncleanness in her, then let him write her a bill of divorcement." Upon
the meaning of the word uncleanness, the Jews differed: some agreed
with the school of Rabbi Hillel: that a man might dismiss his wife for
the slightest offence, or for no offence at all, if he found another
woman that pleased him better; but the school of Rabbi Shammai held
that the term uncleanness means moral delinquency. The Pharisees came
to Christ, hoping to involve him in this controversy; He declined, but
took advantage of the opportunity to give them a discourse on marriage,
and in doing so, he refers to the original institution, saying "have
ye not read that in the beginning God made them male and female?" Thus
He brings out the great law of monogamy. Grant that the allusion is
incidental, nevertheless, it is all-important as falling from the lips
of the Great Master.
I was challenged to show that polygamy is adultery. The gentleman
challenged me, and I will now proceed to prove it. As adultery is
distinguished in Scripture from whoredom and fornication, it is proper
to ascertain the exact meaning of the words as used by the sacred
writers. The word translated whoredom is from the Hebrew verb Zanah
and the Greek pornica, and means pollution, defilement, lewdness,
prostitution and, in common parlance, whoredom, the prostitution of the
body for gain. The word translated fornication is from the same Hebrew
verb, and in general, signifies criminal, sexual intercourse without
the formalities of marriage. Adultery is from the Hebrew word Naaph and
the Greek word Moicheia, and is the criminal intercourse of a married
woman with another man than her husband, or of a married man with
any other woman than his wife. This is indicated by the philological
significance of the term adulterate, compounded of two words meaning
to another, as the addition of pure and impure liquors, or of an alloy
with pure metal. Adulterer is from the Hebrew Naaph and the Greek
Moichos, which mean as above.
The material question to be settled is, Is the Hebrew word Naaph and
the Greek word Moichos or Moicheia confined to the criminal sexual
intercourse between a man, married or unmarried, with a married woman?
This is the theory of the Mormon polygamists; but I join issue with
them and assert that the Scriptures teach that adultery is committed by
a married man who has sexual intercourse with a woman other than his
wife, whether said woman is married or unmarried. It is conceded that
he is an adulterer who has carnal connection with a woman married or
betrothed. Thus far we agree.
Now can it be proved that the sin of adultery is committed by a
married man having carnal connection with a woman neither married nor
betrothed! To prove this point I argue:
First, that the Hebrew word Naaph, translated in the seventh
commandment, adultery, does include all criminal sexual intercourse.
It is a generic term and the whole includes the parts. It is like the
word kill in the sixth commandment, which includes all those passions
and emotions of the human soul which lead to murder, such as jealousy,
envy, malice, hatred, revenge. So this word Naaph includes whoredom,
fornication, adultery, and even salacial lust. Matthew v, 27, 29.
Second. The terms adultery and fornication are used interchangeably by
our Lord, and mean the same thing. A married woman copulating with a
man other than her husband is admitted to be adultery, but the highest
authority we can bring forward calls the act fornication. Matthew v, 3,
2. Romans vii, 2, 3. 1st Corinthians vii, 1, 4.
Third. The carnal connection of a man with an unmarried woman is
positively declared to be adultery in God's holy word. It is so
recorded in Job xxiv, from the 15th to the 21st verse; and in Isaiah
lvii and 3rd it is taught that the adulterer commits his sin with the
whore. Therefore I conclude that the term Naaph, as used in the seventh
commandment, comprehends all those modifications of that crime, down to
the salacial lust that a man may feel in his soul for a woman.
But it may be asked: If this is so, why then, does the Mosiac law
mention a married woman? We deny that such a distinction is made.
We do admit, however, that special penalties were pronounced on
such an action with a married woman, but for special reasons. What
were they? To preserve the genealogy, parentage and birth of Christ
from interruption and confusion, which were in imminent danger when
intercourse with a married woman was had by a man other than her
husband. And no such danger could arise from the intercourse with
a married man with an unmarried woman. That law was temporary, and
was abolished and passed away when Christ came. Under the Jewish
dispensation he that cohabited with a woman other than his wife was
responsible to God for the violation of the seventh commandment; the
woman was also responsible to God for the violation of the seventh
commandment and this special law. But here you say if this be true,
then some great men in Bible times were guilty of the violation of
the seventh commandment. I say they were; but they were not all
polygamists: that I have demonstrated to you to-day. But take the
facts: Abraham, when convinced of his sin, put away Hagar; Jacob lived
several years out of the state of polygamy; David put away all his
wives eight years before he died; and if there is no account that
Solomon put away his, neither is there the assurance that he abandoned
his idolatry.
This then, my friend, is the argument; and as a Christian minister,
desiring only your good, I proclaim the fact that polygamy is adultery.
I do it in all kindness, but I assert it as a doctrine taught in the
Bible.
I am challenged again to prove that polygamy is no prevention of
prostitution. It has been affirmed time and time again, not only in
this discussion, but in the written works of these distinguished
gentlemen around me, that in monogamic countries prostitution, or
what is known as the social evil, is almost universally prevalent. I
perceive that I have not time to follow out this in arguments; but I
am prepared to prove, and I will prove it in your daily papers, that
prostitution is as old as authentic history; that prostitution has been
and is to-day more prevalent in polygamic countries than in monogamic
countries. I can prove that the figures representing prostitution in
monogamic countries are all overdrawn. They are overdrawn in regard to
my native city, that the gentleman brought up, New York, and of the
million and over of population he can not find six thousand recorded
prostitutes. I can go, for instance, to St. Louis, where they have just
taken the census of the prostitutes of that city, and with a population
of three hundred thousand, there are but 650 courtesans. You may go
through the length and breadth of this land, and in villages containing
from one thousand to ten thousand inhabitants, you cannot find a house
of prostitution. The truth is, my friends, they would not allow it for
a moment. Those men who assert that our monogamous country is full of
prostitutes put forth a slander upon our country.
Our distinguished friend referred to religious liberty, and claimed
that he had a right under the Federal Constitution to enjoy religious
liberty and to practise polygamy. I am proud as he is that we have
religious liberty here. I rejoice that a man can worship God after
his own heart; but I affirm that the law of limitation is no less
applicable to religious liberty than it is to the revolution of the
heavenly bodies. The law of limitation is as universal as creation, and
religious liberty must be practised within the bounds of decency, and
the wellbeing of society; and civil authority may extend or restrict
this religious liberty within due bounds. Why, the Hindoo mother may
come here with her Shasta—with her Bible—and she may throw her babe
into your river or lake, and the civil authorities, according to your
theory, could not interpose and say to that mother, "You shall not do
it." That is the theory. You say it is murder, I say it is not. I say
the act is stripped of the attributes of murder; it is a religious act.
She turns to her bible or Shasta, and says: "I am commanded to do this
by my bible." What will you do? You will turn away from the Shasta and
say, "The interests of society demand that you shall not murder that
child." So civil government has the right to legislate in regard to
marriage, and restrict the number of wives to one, according to God's
law. But I am not an advocate of stringent legislation. I agree with
my friend, that the law should not incarcerate men, women and children
in dungeons! No, my friends, if I can say a word to induce humane and
kind legislation toward the people of Utah I shall do it, and do it
most gladly. But I assert this principle, that civil government has the
right to limit religious liberty within due bounds.
There was another point that I desired to touch upon, and that is as
to the longevity of nations. We are told repeatedly here, in printed
works, that monogamic nations are short-lived, and that polygamic
nations are long-lived. I am prepared to go back to the days of Nimrod,
come down to the days of Ninus Sardanapalus, and down to the days of
Cyrus the Great, and all through those ancient polygamic nations, and
show that they were short-lived; while on the other hand I am prepared
to prove that Greece and Rome outlived the longest-lived polygamic
nations of the past. Greece, from the days of Homer down to the third
century of the Christian era; and Rome at from seven hundred and fifty
years before the coming of Christ down to the dissolution of the old
empire. But that old empire finds a resurrection in the Italians under
Victor Emanuel and Garibaldi; and England, Germany and France are all
proofs of the longevity of monogamic nations. Babylon is a ruin to-day,
and Babylon was polygamic. Egypt, to-day, is a ruin! Her massy piles
of ruin bespeak her former glory and her pristine beauty. And the last
edition of the polygamic nations—Turkey—is passing away. From the
Golden Horn and the Bosphorus, from the Danube, and the Jordan and the
Nile, the power of Mahommedanism is passing away before the advance of
the monogamic nations of the old world. Our own country is just in its
youth; but monogamic as it is, it is destined to live on, to outlive
the hoary past, to live on in its greatness, in its benificence, in its
power; to live on until it has demonstrated all those great problems
committed to our trust for human rights, religion, liberty and the
advancement of the race.
My friends, these are the arguments in favor of Monogamy; and when they
can be overthrown, then it will be time enough for us to receive the
system of Polygamy as it is taught here. But until that great law that
we have quoted can be proved to be not a law: until it can be proved
that there is no distinction between law and practice; until it can be
proved that there is a positive command for polygamy; until it can be
proved that Christ did not refer to the original marriage; until it
can be proved that Paul does not demand that every man shall have his
own wife and every woman her own husband; until it can be proved that
polygamy is a prevention of prostitution; until it can be proved that
monogamic nations are not as long-lived as polygamous nations; until
it can be proved that monogamy is not in harmony with civil liberty;
until all these points can be demonstrated beyond a doubt; until then,
we can't give up this grand idea that God's law condemns polygamy,
and that God's law commends monogamy; that the highest interests of
man, that the dearest interests of the rising generation, that all
that binds us to earth and points us to heaven are not subserved and
promoted under the monogamic system. All these great interests demand
the practice of monogamy in marriage—one man and one wife. Then indeed
shall be realized the picture portrayed in Scripture of the happy
family—the family where the wife is one and the husband one, and the
two are equivalent; then, when father and mother, centered in the
family, shall bring up their children in the nurture and admonition of
the Lord—when the husband provides for his family—and it is said that
the man who does not is worse than an infidel—then indeed monogamy
stands forth as a grand Bible doctrine.